The FAA updated the Sample Airman Knowledge Test Questions on June 13, 2011. The question bank for Private, Instrument, Commercial, CFI, and Light Sport have new dates. The previous dates were January 31, 2011. There is no difference between the Private Pilot questions or answers for the two dates.
I check the site fairly frequently for updates and prior to January the last update that I found was July 6, 2009. There are no additions since that time and a bunch of deletions. Some of the deletions make sense, e.g. exact duplicates of questions, but there is a whole block of questions that are good questions but no longer in the test bank. Below are all the questions that were deleted. Numbers refer to the numbers in the 2009 test bank.
104. PLT405 PVT
A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
A) 60 days. B) 90 days. C) 120 days.
113. PLT284 PVT When the term ‘light and variable’ is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is A) 0000 and less than 7 knots. B) 9900 and less than 5 knots. C) 9999 and less than 10 knots.
120. PLT075 PVT (Refer to figure 18.) The marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to low A) ceiling. B) visibility. C) ceiling and visibility.
123. PLT290 PVT What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms? A) Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of the area. B) Moderate or severe turbulence. C) Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.
131. PLT493 PVT Which conditions result in the formation of frost? A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface. B) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing. C) The temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface.
165. PLT116 PVT FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by A) distribution from the nearest FAA district office. B) ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office. C) subscribing to the Federal Register.
187. PLT407 PVT To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months A) at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft. B) at least three flights in a powered glider. C) at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
281. PLT514 PVT In addition to the standard briefing, what additional information should be asked of the weather briefer in order to evaluate soaring conditions? A) The upper soundings to determine the thermal index at all soaring levels. B) Dry adiabatic rate of cooling to determine the height of cloud bases. C) Moist adiabatic rate of cooling to determine the height of cloud tops.
197. PLT222 PVT When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? A) When visibility is less than 1 mile. B) When parallel runways are in use. C) When departing from a runway intersection.
198. PLT435 PVT As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of A) 25 miles. B) 20 miles. C) 10 miles.
199. PLT141 PVT How can a military airport be identified at night? A) Alternate white and green light flashes. B) Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
C) White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.
200. PLT141 PVT What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign? A) Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. B) Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. C) Denotes intersecting runways.
201. PLT141 PVT The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately A) 008° and 026° true. B) 080° and 260° true. C) 080° and 260° magnetic.
202. PLT141 PVT What does the outbound destination sign identify? A) Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. B) Identifies direction to take-off runways. C) Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.
203. PLT141 PVT When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot A) may continue taxiing. B) should not cross the lines without ATC clearance. C) should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.
204. PLT141 PVT When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot A) may continue taxiing. B) should not cross the lines without ATC clearance. C) should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.
205. PLT196 PVT Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that A) weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums. B) the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted. C) the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
206. PLT204 PVT From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations? A) Clearance delivery. B) Tower, just before takeoff. C) Ground control, on initial contact.
207. PLT150 PVT The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is A) 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude. B) to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude. C) to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.
208. PLT509 PVT How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A) Inward, upward, and around each tip. B) Inward, upward, and counterclockwise. C) Outward, upward, and around each tip.
209. PLT393 PVT Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has A) filed an IFR flight plan. B) received prior authorization from the controlling agency. C) received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
210. PLT078 PVT (Refer to figure 53.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal? A) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation. B) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation. C) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
211. PLT162 PVT When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation? A) The airspace designation normally will not change. B) The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
C) The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
212. PLT162 PVT When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation? A) The airspace designation normally will not change. B) The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available. C) The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
213. PLT161 PVT With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include, A) 10,000 feet MSL. B) 14,500 feet MSL. C) 18,000 feet MSL.
214. PLT370 PVT An ATC clearance provides A) priority over all other traffic. B) adequate separation from all traffic. C) authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
215. PLT370 PVT TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides A) IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft. B) warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft. C) sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.
216. PLT150 PVT Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should A) monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories. B) contact approach control for vectors to the traffic pattern. C) contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
217. PLT194 PVT
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? A) The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. B) The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. C) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
218. PLT194 PVT Most midair collision accidents occur during A) hazy days. B) clear days. C) cloudy nights.
219. PLT194 PVT Most midair collision accidents occur during A) hazy days. B) clear days. C) cloudy nights.
220. PLT208 PVT If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster A) airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and better control throughout the landing roll. B) groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point. C) groundspeed at touchdown, a shorter ground roll, and the likelihood of undershooting the desired touchdown point.
221. PLT219 PVT (Refer to figure 63.) In flying the rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90°? A) Corners 1 and 4. B) Corners 1 and 2. C) Corners 2 and 4.
222. PLT219 PVT (Refer to figure provided.) While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn A) 1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly during the latter part of the turn. B) 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn. C) 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly during the latter part of the turn.
223. PLT078 PVT (Refer to figure 53.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are A) to the right on Runway 17L and Runway 35L; to the left on Runway 17R and Runway 35R. B) to the left on Runway 17L and Runway 35L; to the right on Runway 17R and Runway 35R. C) to the right on Runways 14 – 32.
224. PLT281 PVT Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the A) NOTAMs. B) Airport/Facility Directory. C) Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.
225. PLT281 PVT The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that A) this airport is designated as an airport of entry. B) the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station. C) this airport has a direct-line phone to the Flight Service Station.
226. PLT354 PVT How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)? A) 22. B) 24. C) 25.
227. PLT354 PVT How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution? A) 4. B) 5. C) 6.
228. PLT362 PVT To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft’s position, the aircraft must have a A) VHF transmitter and receiver. B) 4096-code transponder. C) VOR receiver and DME.
229. PLT172 PVT Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as A) safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft. B) mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program. C) wind-shear warning at participating airports.
230. PLT426 PVT What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD’s)? A) They are mandatory. B) They are voluntary. C) For Informational purposes only.
231. PLT378 PVT May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)? A) Yes, AD’s are only voluntary. B) Yes, if allowed by the AD. C) Yes, under VFR conditions only.
233. PLT375 PVT Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? 1. Student or Recreational pilot. 2. Private or Commercial pilot. 3. None of the above. A) 1. B) 2. C) Neither 1 or 2.
234. PLT375 PVT What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance? A) 14 CFR Part 91.403. B) 14 CFR Part 61.113. C) 14 CFR Part 43.7.
236. PLT369 PVT In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited? A) Class E airspace not designated for Federal Airways above 1,500 feet AGL. B) Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL. C) Class G airspace above 1,500 feet AGL.
237. PLT119 PVT Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? A) End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight. B) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C) Sunset to sunrise.
238. PLT372 PVT An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? A) 1349.6 hours. B) 1359.6 hours. C) 1369.6 hours.
239. PLT383 PVT Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? A) 200 knots. B) 250 knots. C) 288 knots.
240. PLT163 PVT During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is A) 1 mile. B) 3 miles. C) 5 miles.
241. PLT163 PVT During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is A) 500 feet. B) 1,000 feet. C) 1,500 feet.
242. PLT163 PVT The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is A) 1 mile. B) 3 miles. C) 5 miles.
243. PLT374 PVT Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD’s) are complied with? A) Owner or operator. B) Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA). C) Repair station.
244. PLT377 PVT The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a A) review of the maintenance records. B) statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy. C) log book endorsement from a flight instructor.
246. PLT170 PVT While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall A) maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI. B) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. C) stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
247. PLT372 PVT An aircraft`s annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than A) July 1, next year. B) July 13, next year. C) July 31, next year.
248. PLT430 PVT Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? A) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. B) An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. C) An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
251. PLT438 PVT When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during A) the entire flight time at those altitudes. B) that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes. C) that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
252. PLT508 PVT Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1,2006. The next inspection will be due no later than A) September 30, 2007. B) September 1, 2008. C) September 30, 2008.
253. PLT402 PVT When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced? A) Every 24 months. B) When 50 percent of their useful life expires. C) At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.
254. PLT402 PVT When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable? A) After any inadvertent activation of the ELT. B) When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour. C) When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane’s communication radio receiver.
255. PLT426 PVT No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding A) 6 calendar months. B) 12 calendar months. C) 24 calendar months.
256. PLT467 PVT Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°? A) Even thousandths. B) Even thousandths plus 500 feet. C) Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
257. PLT274 PVT To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft,the pilot should refer to the A) Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories. B) Weather Depiction Chart. C) Area Forecast.
258. PLT081 PVT (Refer to figure 16.) What sky conditon and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z? A) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility. B) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 nautical miles visibility. C) Ceiling 100 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.
259. PLT291 PVT The section of the Area Forecast entitled ‘VFR CLDS/ WX’ contains a general description of A) cloudiness and weather significant to flight operations broken down by states or other geographical areas. B) forecast sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, and obstructions to vision along specific routes. C) clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR flight operations.
260. PLT081 PVT (Refer to figure 16.) What is the outlook for the southern half of Indiana after 0700Z? A) Scattered clouds at 3,000 feet AGL. B) Scattered clouds at 10,000 feet. C) VFR.
261. PLT291 PVT From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast? A) Low-Level Prognostic Chart. B) Weather Depiction Chart. C) Area Forecast.
262. PLT514 PVT To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to A) Aviation Area Forecasts. B) Weather Depiction Charts. C) Satellite Maps.
263. PLT081 PVT (Refer to figure 16.) The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the twenty-fifth at A) 0800Z. B) 1400Z. C) 1945Z.