These are the questions on the Sample Test and the answers that I found. The procedure that I used to find the answers was to put all of the relevant FAA publications in a folder and then search for words in the question or the correct answer. Since the FARs are regulatory and the AIM while not regulatory, provides information which reflects examples of operating techniques and procedures which may be requirements in other federal publications or regulations., if the answer appeared in either of those, I used it as the source. Next in order of priority were the Instrument Flying Handbook, and Instrument Procedures Handbook. There is a lot of information in these two publications that is also found word-for-word in the AIM.
For the most part, the FAA publications give the same answer no matter which source you choose, so it doesn’t matter if you study a more accessible publication rather than trying to wade through the AIM.
The ACS codes are matched with each question at the end of the Instrument Knowledge Test Guide so you can look up the answer in the appropriate FAA publication if you don’t like source for the answer I gave.
Some of the questions reference charts, tables, and images that are found in the Test Supplement Booklets.
To see the answer, highlight the area next to the — as if you were going to copy it.
Instrument Rating Airplane Sample Exam with ACS Codes
1 . 0PLT172 IR.III.A.K8
ATC can issue a STAR
A) to all pilots wherever STARs are available.
B) only if the pilot requests a STAR in the `Remarks` section of the flight plan.
C) when ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests `NoSTAR.`
FAA-H-8083-16 Instrument Procedures Handbook Pilots may accept a STAR within a clearance or they may file for one in their flight plan. As the aircraft nears its destination airport, ATC may add a STAR procedure to its original clearance. Keep in mind that ATC can assign a STAR even if the aircrew has not requested one. Use of a STAR requires pilot possession of at least the approved chart. RNAV STARs must be retrievable by the procedure name from the aircraft database and conform to charted procedure. If an aircrew does not want to use a STAR, they must specify “No STAR” in the remarks section of their flight plan. Pilots may also refuse the STAR when it is given to them verbally by ATC, but the system works better if the aircrew advises ATC ahead of time.
2 . 0PLT128 IR.V.B.R1
On initial climb-out after takeoff and with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation you can expect
A) ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA.
B) the autopilot to hold the vertical speed, if the anti-icing boots are working.
C) the increased air flow under the wings to prevent the accumulation of ice.
AC 91-74B Flight In Icing Conditions 5-6. TAKEOFF AND CLIMBOUT b. Ice Accumulation. Airplanes are vulnerable to ice accumulation during the initial climbout in icing conditions because lower speeds often translate into a higher Angle of Attack (AOA). This exposes the underside of the airplane and its wings to the icing conditions and allows ice to accumulate further aft than it would in cruise flight. At rotation and climbout, some aircraft occasionally are susceptible to stall warning horn activation in icing. Pilot awareness of this hazard in his or her particular aircraft is important to maintain situational awareness.
3 . 0PLT509 IR.III.A.K10
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 158.) With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliners vortices?
A) The winds will push the vortices southeast of your takeoff path.
B) The up wind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
C) The down wind vortex will rapidly dissipate.
FAA-H-8083-25B Pilots Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge Figure 5-15. When the vortices of larger aircraft sink close to the ground (within 100 to 200 feet), they tend to move laterally over the ground at a speed of 2 or 3 knots (top). A crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of the upwind vortex and increase the movement of the downwind vortex. Thus a light wind with a cross runway component of 1 to 5 knots could result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown zone for a period of time and hasten the drift of the downwind vortex toward another runway (bottom). If the wind is at 330° and just a slight crosswind, the vortices will be pushed over Runway 4. The up wind vortex my still be over the runway when you take off.
4 . 0PLT170 IR.III.A.K8
While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when
A) ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
B) average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.
C) groundspeed changes by 10 MPH or more.
AIM 5−1−12. Change in Flight Plan In addition to altitude or flight level, destination and/or route changes, increasing or decreasing the speed of an aircraft constitutes a change in a flight plan. Therefore, at any time the average true airspeed at cruising altitude between reporting points varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus 5 percent, or 10 knots, whichever is greater, ATC should be advised. See Required ATC Reports for details.
5 . 0PLT224 IR.I.C.K7
You may cancel an IFR flight plan
A) at any time as long as you advise ATC.
B) only in an emergency.
C) if in VMC outside Class A airspace.
AIM 5-1-15 b. An IFR flight plan may be canceled at any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside Class A airspace by pilots stating “CANCEL MY IFR FLIGHT PLAN” to the controller or air/ground station with which they are communicating.
6 . 0PLT141 IR.III.A.K1
While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?
A) continue as directed.
B) advise “unable” and remain clear of clouds.
C) deviate as needed; then rejoin the approach.
AIM 4−3−21. Practice Instrument Approaches It must be clearly understood, however, that even though the controller may be providing separation, pilots on VFR flight plans are required to comply with basic VFR weather minimums… f. Except in an emergency, aircraft cleared to practice instrument approaches must not deviate from the approved procedure until cleared to do so by the controller. The answer is B because in all airspace, VFR pilots must remain clear of clouds and if unable to do so must notify the controller. The answer is only partially correct. Unless you are in Class B airspace (or aboce 10,000′), you must also remain 1,000′ above, 500′ below, and 2,000′ laterally from clouds.
7 . 0PLT382 IR.VI.B.K4
If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?
A) As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.
B) As an RVR of 2,400 feet.
C) As a ground visibility of 1/2SM.
14 CFR §91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR. (h) Comparable values of RVR and ground visibility. has a table showing conversion of RVR to feet. AIM TBL 5−4−1 RVR Value Conversions also has the conversions.
9 . 0PLT292 IR.I.C.K4
If the plan view on an approach chart does not include a procedure turn barb, that means
A) a procedure turn is not authorized.
B) you should fly a teardrop entry.
C) a racetrack-type turn is required.
AIM 5-4-9 4. The absence of the procedure turn barb in the plan view indicates that a procedure turn is not authorized for that procedure.
10 . PLT083 IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 227.) Refer to the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is
A) 7,080 feet MSL.
B) 7,977 feet MSL.
C) 8,000 feet MSL.
On an ILS approach the FAF intercept altitude is is where the glide slope is intercepted. From FIRPI to glide slope intercept the minimum altitude is shown as 8000 on the profile view, so you pick up the glide slope at 8,000′. The non-precision FAF altitude is usually close to the precision value and sometimes they are the same. In this case it is 7,977′.
11 . PLT083 IR.VI.A.K1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Legend 21 and Addendum A, Figure 242.) You have been cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach to LIT. At a ground speed of 105 knots, what are the vertical descent angle and rate of descent on final approach?
A) 2.82 degrees and 524 feet per minute.
B) 3.00 degrees and 557 feet per minute.
C) 4.00 degrees and 550 feet per nauticalmile.
Vertical descent angle is shown on the Plan View. Use the Rate of Descent table in the Legend section of the test booklet to get 557 fpm. (It is found on the back cover of the TPP booklets or in the Legends section of your EFB.)
12 . PLT370 IR.VI.B.K1
You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should
A) turn outbound and complete the procedure turn.
B) continue as assigned and query ATC.
C) turn inbound and join the final approach course.
AIM 5-4-3 (b) After release to approach control, aircraft are vectored to the final approach course (ILS, RNAV, GLS, VOR, ADF, etc.). Radar vectors and altitude or flight levels will be issued as required for spacing and separating aircraft. Therefore, pilots must not deviate from the headings issued by approach control. Aircraft will normally be informed when it is necessary to vector across the final approach course for spacing or other reasons. If approach course crossing is imminent and the pilot has not been informed that the aircraft will be vectored across the final approach course, the pilot should query the controller.
13 . PLT012 IR.I.C.S5
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figures 21, 22, and 24.) If the average fuel consumption is 17.5 GPH, how much fuel would you use on the flight between Grand Junction, CO and Durango, CO?
A) 17 gallons.
B) 20 gallons.
C) 25 gallons.
The flight log already has the time for departure to HERRM and from MANCA to the airport. We just need to find the distance from HERRM to MANCA. It is given on the chart under the airway label as 75 nm. You could also subtract the distance for GCO to HERRM (35 nm) and the distance from the VOR at the end of V187 32 NM (It happens to be Rattlesnake, RSK but that is not shown on the chart excerpt.) from the total distance between the VORs (142 NM) to get 142-32-35=75NM. The true airspeed on the flight plan is 175 kts. So it takes (75 NM/ 175 NM/Hr)*60 = 25.7 minutes. Since we haven’t been given climbout and descent fuel burn, assume 15 gph for each. Total time is 24 + 25.7 + 18.5 = 68.2 minutes. At 15 gph we get 17.054. The closest answer is 17 gallons.
14 . PLT292 IR.III.A.K8
Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?
A) The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds.
B) The controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds.
C) The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.
AIM 5-4-25 5−4−25. Contact Approach a. Pilots operating in accordance with an IFR flight plan, provided they are clear of clouds and have at least 1 mile flight visibility and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in those conditions, may request ATC authorization for a contact approach. b. Controllers may authorize a contact approach provided: 1. The contact approach is specifically requested by the pilot. ATC cannot initiate this approach. Read more about Contact and Visual Approaches.
15 . PLT222 IR.III.A.K8
During a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings, you should contact departure
A) before entering the clouds.
B) when the tower instructs the change.
C) upon reaching traffic pattern altitude.
AIM 5−2−7. Departure Control c. Controllers will inform pilots of the departure control frequencies and, if appropriate, the transponder code before takeoff. Pilots must ensure their transponder is adjusted to the “on” or normal operating position as soon as practical and remain on during all operations unless otherwise requested to change to “standby” by ATC. Pilots should not change to the departure control frequency until requested.
16 . PLT406 IR.VI.B.K4
A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?
A) The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach.
B) The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glideslope in place of the electronic glideslope.
C) The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot`s discretion.
14 CFR §91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR. … no pilot may operate an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless… at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: — (vi) The visual approach slope indicator.
17 . PLT202 IR.II.B.K2c
The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at
A) high altitudes far from the VORTAC.
B) high altitudes close to the VORTAC.
C) low altitudes far from the VORTAC.
FAA-H-8083-25B Pilots Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge 16-27 DME display shows the slant range distance to or from the VORTAC. Slant range distance is the direct distance between the aircraft and the VORTAC and is therefore affected by aircraft altitude. (Station passage directly over a VORTAC from an altitude of 6,076 feet AGL would show approximately 1.0 NM on the DME.)
18 . PLT322 IR.I.C.K9
You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between navaids should be
A) 40 NM.
B) 70 NM.
C) 80 NM.
AIM 1-1-8 TBL 1-1-1 Low VORs have a range of 40 NM up to 18,000′ and High VORs have a range of 100 NM from 14,500 up to 60,000′. Since the question doesn’t specify which type of VOR you are using, assume the worst case distance of 40 NM for each or 80 NM between them.
19 . PLT354 IR.VI.A.K3
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot should
A) continue the approach, expecting to recapture the satellites before reaching the FAF.
B) use a navigation or approach system other than GPS for an approach.
C) continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured.
AIM 1-1-18 (3) Procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur. In situations where RAIM is predicted to be unavailable, the flight must rely on other approved navigation equipment, re-route to where RAIM is available, delay departure, or cancel the flight. AIM 1-1-22 3) (3) If a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP), the approach should not be completed since GPS no longer provides the required integrity. (4) If the receiver does not sequence into the approach mode or a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the FAWP, the pilot must not initiate the approach or descend, but instead proceed to the missed approach waypoint ( MAWP) via the FAWP, perform a missed approach, and contact ATC as soon as practical. [The question asks what you should do if RAIM is not available prior to beginning the approach, so B is correct.]
20 . PLT322 IR.II.B.K2b
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?
A) The first movement of the CDI as the airplane enters the zone of confusion.
B) The moment the TO FROM indicator becomes blank.
C) The first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator.
AIM 1-1-3 …the pilot may occasionally observe a brief course needle oscillation, similar to the indication of “approaching station.” Pilots flying over unfamiliar routes are cautioned to be on the alert for these vagaries, and in particular, to use the “to/from” indicator to determine positive station passage.
21 . PLT300 IR.II.B.K2b
When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?
A) Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.
B) Plus or minus 4° of the designated radial.
C) Plus 6° or minus 4° of the designated radial.
14 CFR §91.171 VOR equipment check for IFR operations. (3) If neither a test signal nor a designated checkpoint on the surface is available, use an airborne checkpoint designated by the Administrator or, outside the United States, by an appropriate authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 6 degrees);
23 . PLT058 IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 87.) What is indicated by the localizer course symbol at Jefferson County Airport?
A) A published LDA localizer course with voice capability.
B) A published SDF localizer course with back course capabilities.
C) A published ILS localizer course which has an additional navigation function.
Refer to the Legend on the IFR Low Altitude Charts. An ILS symbol refers to an “ILS Localizer Course with additional navigation functions”
24 . PLT058 IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 91.) When flying a northbound IFR flight on V257, what is the minimum crossing altitude at DBS VORTAC?
A) 7,500 feet.
B) 8,600 feet.
C) 11,100 feet.
The flag with an X indicates that the intersection (or VOR) has a minimum crossing altitude. The MCA is often displayed offset from the fix because of space considerations, but in this case it is within the compass rose. The first line says V21-257 8600N.
25 . PLT083 IR.V.B.K9
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 230.) The minimum safe altitude (MSA) for the VOR/DME or GPS-A at 7D3 is geographically centered on what position?
A) DEANI intersection.
B) WHITE CLOUD VOR/DME.
C) Baldwin Municipal Airport.
The MSA symbol is described in the Instrument Approach Procedures Legend. In this case it says MSA HIC 25 NM and is at 2800′ MSL. HIC is the abbreviation for White Cloud VOR/DME.
26 . PLT058 IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 24.) While passing near the CORTEZ VOR, southbound on V187, contact is lost with Denver Center. You should attempt to reestablish contact with Denver Center on
A) 133.425 MHz.
B) 122.1 MHz and receive on 108.4MHz.
C) 122.35 MHz.
Refer to the Legend on the IFR Low Altitude Charts to see that the postage stamp like symbol are ARTCC Remotes sites with discrete VHR and UHF frequencies. In this case, the frequency is 133.425.
27 . PLT100 IR.I.C.K4
Military training routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet are depicted on
A) IFR Planning Charts.
B) IFR Low Altitude En Route Charts.
C) IFR High Altitude En Route Charts.
AIM 3-5-2 2. Route charting. (a) IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart. This chart will depict all IR routes and all VR routes that accommodate operations above 1,500 feet AGL. (b) VFR Sectional Aeronautical Charts. These charts will depict military training activities such as IR, VR, MOA, Restricted Area, Warning Area, and Alert Area information. c. Generally, MTRs are established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. [So they wouldn’t appear on IFR High Charts]
28 . PLT058 IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 53.) What is indicated by the inverse `H` symbol in the radio aids to navigation box for SAN MARCUS VORTAC?
A) VOR with TACAN compatible DME.
B) The availability of HIWAS.
C) The VOR has a high altitude SSV Class Designator.
Refer to the Legend on the IFR Low Altitude Charts. A white H in a black circle refers to HIWAS—Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service
29 . PLT442 IR.I.A.K2
To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, in the same category of aircraft:
A) holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems, and six instrument approaches.
B) 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft, and six instrument approaches.
C) six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown,and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.
14 CFR §61.57 Recent flight experience: Pilot in command. …for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained in actual weather conditions, or under simulated conditions using a view-limiting device that involves having performed the following— (i) Six instrument approaches. (ii) Holding procedures and tasks. (iii) Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems.
30 . PLT379 IR.I.C.K12
Determine the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure.
A) 400 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
B) 600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
C) 800 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
14 CFR §91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required. The alternate airport minima specified in that procedure, or if none are specified the following standard approach minima: (A) For a precision approach procedure. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. (B) For a nonprecision approach procedure. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. If no instrument approach procedure has been published… the ceiling and visibility minima are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
31 . PLT443 IR.I.A.K1
A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least
A) a type rating.
B) a first class medical certificate.
C) an instrument rating in the same category of aircraft.
14 CFR §61.133 Commercial pilot privileges and limitations. A person who… does not hold an instrument rating in the same category and class will be issued a commercial pilot certificate that contains the limitation, “The carriage of passengers for hire in (airplanes) (powered-lifts) on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night is prohibited.”
32 . PLT442 IR.I.A.K2
What are the requirements to log an ILS approach in VMC conditions for instrument currency?
A) The flight must remain on an IFR flight plan throughout the approach and landing.
B) The ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view-limiting device and log the name of the safety pilot.
C) The ILS approach can be credited regardless of actual weather if you are issued an IFR clearance.
14 CFR §61.57 Recent flight experience: Pilot in command. Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, that person performed and logged at least the following tasks and iterations in an airplane, powered-lift, helicopter, or airship, as appropriate, for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained in actual weather conditions, or under simulated conditions using a view-limiting device… 14 CFR §61.51 Pilot logbooks. …enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged: (v) The name of a safety pilot, if required by §91.109 of this chapter.
33 . PLT370 IR.I.C.K11
When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?
A) When operating in the Class E airspace.
B) When operating in a Class A airspace.
C) When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.
14 CFR §91.135 Operations in Class A airspace.
Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must conduct that operation under instrument flight rules (IFR)… AIM 3-2-2 Class A Airspace b. Operating Rules and Pilot/Equipment Requirements. Unless otherwise authorized, all persons must operate their aircraft under IFR.
34 . PLT317 IR.I.B.R5
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 13.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?
A) Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.
B) Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.
C) Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.
AIM 7−1−25. Microbursts The impact of a microburst on aircraft which have the unfortunate
experience of penetrating one is characterized in FIG 7−1−11. The aircraft may encounter a headwind (performance increasing) followed by a downdraft and tailwind (both performance decreasing), possibly resulting in terrain impact.
35 . PLT291 IR.I.B.K1
Area forecasts generally include a forecast period of 18 hours and cover a geographical
A) terminal area.
B) area less than 3,000 square miles.
C) area the size of several states.
AIM 7-1-5 Area Forecast (FA) areas described in FIG 7−1−2 and FIG 7−1−3. [Each area covers several states. There are 6 areas in the CONUS so on average they cover 6 states with 3 as the minimum.] SIGMETs and AIRMETs are considered “widespread” because they must be either affecting or be forecasted to affect an area of at least 3,000 square miles at any one time.
36 . PLT288 IR.I.B.K1
Which weather product is a concise statement of the expected weather for an airport`s runway complex?
A) Area Forecast (FA).
B) Weather Depiction Charts.
C) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).
AC 00-45H 5.11 Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF). A TAF is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation for a specified time period within 5 sm of the center of the airport’s runway complex (terminal).
37 . PLT284 IR.I.B.S1
Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB) for OKC at 39,000 feet.
FT 3000 9000 12000 24000 39000
OKC 9900 2018+00 2130-06 2361-30 830558
A) Wind 130° at 50 knots, temperature -58 °C.
B) Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58° C.
C) Wind 330° at 205 knots, temperature -58° C.
AC 00-45H 22.214.171.124.2 Wind direction is indicated in tens of degrees (two digits) with reference to true north and wind speed is given in knots (two digits). Light and variable wind or wind speeds of less than 5 kts are expressed by 9900. Forecast wind speeds of 100 through 199 kts are indicated by subtracting 100 from the speed and adding 50 to the coded direction. For example, a forecast of 250 degrees, 145 kts, is encoded as 7545. Forecast wind speeds of 200 kts or greater are indicated as a forecast speed of 199 kts. For example, 7799 is decoded as 270 degrees at 199 kts or greater.… Temperature is indicated in degrees Celsius (two digits) and is preceded by the appropriate algebraic sign for the levels from 6,000 through 24,000 ft. Above 24,000 ft, the sign is omitted since temperatures are always negative at those altitudes. In this case subtract 50 from the direction to get 33 or 330° and add 100 to speed to get 105 kts, temperature is minus 58 since the 39000 level is above 23,000′.
38 . PLT288 IR.I.B.S1
Use the TAF to determine the wind shear forecast.
TAF KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM –RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT
TEMPO 1719 1/2SM –RA FG
FM1930 09012KT 1SM –DZ BR VV003
BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=
A) Wind shear at 500 feet MSL from 270° at 50 KT.
B) Wind shear at 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
C) Wind shear from the surface to 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
AC 00-45H 126.96.36.199 Non-Convective Low-Level Wind Shear (LLWS) Group (WShwshwshws/dddffKT). Forecasts of LLWS in the TAF refer only to Non-Convective LLWS from the surface up to and including 2,000 ft AGL. LLWS is always assumed to be present in Convective activity. [They give an example WS020/27055KT] the indicator WS is followed by a three-digit number that is the top of the wind shear layer. LLWS is forecast to be present from the surface to this level.
AIM 7-1-29 Key To Terminal Aerodrome Forecast WS010/31022KT In U.S.TAF, non-convective low-level (≤ 2,000ft) WindShear; 3-digit height (hundreds of ft); “/”; 3-digit wind direction and 2-3 digit wind speed above the indicated height, and unit, KT.
AIM 7-1-30 Wind shear is the forecast of nonconvective low level winds (up to 2,000 feet). The forecast includes the letters “WS” followed by the height of the wind shear, the wind direction and wind speed at the indicated height and the ending letters “KT” (knots). Height is given in hundreds of feet (AGL) up to and including 2,000 feet. Wind shear is encoded with the contraction “WS,” followed by a three−digit height, slant character “/,” and winds at the height indicated in the same format as surface winds. The wind shear element is omitted if not expected to occur. WS010/18040KT − “LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR AT ONE THOUSAND, WIND ONE EIGHT ZERO AT FOUR ZERO”
39 . PLT059 IR.I.B.S1
Interpret the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA
METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42
A) The wind is variable from 290° to 360.
B) Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31.
C) Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.
AC 00-45H 188.8.131.52.11 Beginning and Ending of Precipitation. At designated stations, the beginning and ending times of precipitation are coded in the following format: the type of precipitation, followed by either a B for beginning or an E for ending, and the time of occurrence. No spaces are coded between the elements.
40 . PLT294 IR.I.B.K1
If you encounter in-flight icing and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the official reportable icing values that you are expected to use?
A) Light, moderate, severe, extreme.
B) Trace, light, moderate, severe.
C) Few, light, moderate, severe.
AIM 7−1−20. PIREPs Relating to Airframe Icing Trace, Light, Moderate, Severe
41 . PLT068 IR.I.B.S1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 7.) Interpret the weather conditions depicted within the area indicated by arrow F?
A) 2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 540.
B) 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51,000 feet MSL.
C) Occasional embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 25,000 feet with tops to 48,000 feet.
The legend on the chart says that it is for FL 250-600 so the XXX means that the bases are below the chart. The tops are at FL480. OCNL EMBD CB means occasional embedded cumulonimbus. C isn’t exactly correct, but is probably what they want.
42 . PLT226 IR.I.B.K4f
In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?
A) Coastal areas.
B) Mountain slopes.
C) Level in land areas.
AC 00-6b Aviation Weather Advection fog forms when moist air moves over a colder surface (see Figure 16-3), and the subsequent cooling of that air to below its dewpoint. It is most common along coastal areas, but often moves deep in continental areas.
43 . PLT291 IR.I.B.K1
`WND` in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area Forecast means that the surface wind speed during that period is forecast to be
A) sustained at 25 knots or greater.
B) gusting at 20 knots or greater.
C) sustained at 20 knots or greater.
F.4 Area Forecast (FA) Format—Continental United States (CONUS). “WND” is appended to any category if the sustained surface wind is expected to be 20 kts or more, or surface wind gusts are expected to be 25 kts or more during the majority of the 6-hour outlook period.
44 . PLT161 IR.I.C.K11
Your transponder is inoperative. What are the requirements for flying in Class D airspace?
A) The entry into Class D is prohibited.
B) Continue the flight as planned.
C) Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.
14 CFR §91.215 ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment and use. tells where a transponder is required. It is not required in Class D airspace unless it is in the Class B mode C veil. 14 CFR §91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements. Section (d) Instrument flight rules. lists the requirements for IFR flight. Transponder is not listed.
45 . PLT161 IR.I.C.R1
ATC has approved your request for VFR-on-top while on an IFR clearance. Therefore, you
A) should set your transponder to code 1200.
B) must fly appropriate IFR altitudes.
C) must fly appropriate VFR altitudes.
AIM 4−4−8. IFR Clearance VFR−on−top e. When operating in VFR conditions with an ATC authorization to “maintain VFR−on−top/maintain VFR conditions” pilots on IFR flight plans must: 1. Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude as prescribed in 14 CFR Section 91.159.
46 . PLT281 IR.III.A.K1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 162.) You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates
A) you are on the centerline for your assigned runway.
B) you are too low on the approach.
C) you have lined up with the wrong runway.
Refer to the airport diagram legend in the Chart Supplement. The code CL indicates that the runway has centerline lighting. RWY 16R-34L has the code, RWY 16L-34R does not. You can also see runway centerline lights in the airport sketch for RWY 16R-34L and not on RWY 16L-34R.
47 . PLT337 IR.IV.A.K3
If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
A) The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a descent.
B) The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.
C) The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb and then a descent.
Older versions of FAA H 8083-15 Instrument Flying Handbook say “If the alternate source is vented inside the airplane, where static pressure is usually lower than outside static pressure, selection of the alternate source may result in the following erroneous instrument indications: 1. Altimeter reads higher than normal, 2. Indicated airspeed (IAS) reads greater than normal, and 3. VSI momentarily shows a climb.” Newer versions say, “Consult the Pilot’s Operating Handbook/Airplane Flight Manual (POH/ AFM) to determine the amount of error.” Personal testing indicates that B is correct.
48 . PLT088 IR.IV.A.K3
If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become blocked, the indicated airspeed will
A) increase during a climb.
B) decrease during a climb.
C) remain constant regardless of altitude change.
FAA H 8083-15 Instrument Flying Handbook 5-2 Blocked Pitot System If the pitot tube drain hole becomes obstructed, the pitot system can become partially or completely blocked. When dynamic pressure cannot enter the pitot tube opening, the ASI no longer operates. If the drain hole is open, static pressure equalizes on both sides of the diaphram in the ASI and the indicated airspeed slowly drops to zero. If the pitot tube ram pressure hole and drain hole become obstructed, the ASI operates like an altimeter as the aircraft climbs and descends.
49 . PLT140 IR.VI.E.K5
What is the rule for a pilot receiving a “Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance?”
A) The pilot is required to accept the controller`s clearance in visual meteorological conditions.
B) The pilot must accept the clearance if the pavement is dry and the stopping distance is adequate.
C) The pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions.
AIM 4-3-11 2. At controlled airports, air traffic may clear a pilot to land and hold short. Pilots may accept such a clearance provided that the pilot−in−command determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop within the Available Landing Distance (ALD).
50 . PLT145 IR.VI.E.K4
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
2−1−3. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) REILs are installed at many airfields to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway. The system consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold.
51 . PLT292 IR.VI.B.K1
A Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) approach may require
A) simultaneously monitoring two frequencies.
B) special training to monitor two ILS receivers simultaneously.
C) tracking performance parameters at the decision point.
AIM 5−4−16. Simultaneous Close Parallel ILS PRM/RNAV PRM/GLS PRM Approaches and Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approaches (SOIA) Pilots must complete special pilot training, …The aircraft flying the ILS PRM or LDA PRM approach must have the capability of enabling the pilot/s to listen to two communications frequencies simultaneously.… Dual VHF Communications Required. To avoid blocked transmissions, each runway will have two frequencies, a primary and a PRM monitor frequency. The tower controller will transmit on both frequencies. The monitor controller’s transmissions, if needed, will override both frequencies. Pilots will ONLY transmit on the tower controller’s frequency, but will listen to both frequencies.
52 . PLT147 IR.VI.E.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 136.) An `on glidepath` indication is
AIM FIG 2−1−5 Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) The first two are above the glide path, the middle is on the glidepath, and the last two are below the glidepath.
53 . PLT133 IR.III.A.K5
Unless otherwise stated, instrument procedures use the standard IFR climb gradient of
A) 500 feet per minute.
B) 400 feet per nautical mile.
C) 200 feet per nautical mile.
AIM 5-2-8 Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all departures, including diverse, is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above the departure end of runway elevation, climbing to 400 feet above the departure end of runway elevation before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM), unless required to level off by a crossing restriction, until the minimum IFR altitude. A greater climb gradient may be specified in the DP to clear obstacles or to achieve an ATC crossing restriction. AIM 4-4-6 Descend or climb at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft to 1,000 feet above or below the assigned altitude, and then attempt to descend or climb at a rate of between 500 and 1,500 fpm until the assigned altitude is reached. If at anytime the pilot is unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet a minute, advise ATC. Since they use the word procedure in the question, and only departure procedures use a climg, I’m assuming that they are referring to either a departure procedure. Therefore the answer is C.
54 . PLT141 IR.V.B.K5
(Refer to the figure provided.) Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?
A) Top red.
B) Middle yellow.
C) Bottom yellow.
AIM 2−3−8. Mandatory Instruction Signs a. These signs have a red background with a white inscription and are used to denote:
55 . PLT104 IR.II.B.R1
The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhanced situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that this technology could lead to
FAA H 8083-15 Airplane Flying Handbook The automation intended to reduce pilot workload essentially removes the pilot from the process of managing the aircraft, thereby reducing situational awareness and leading to complacency. FAA H 8083-2 Risk Management Handbook …increasing numbers of GA aircraft have been equipped with integrated advanced program avionics systems. These systems can lull pilots into a sense of complacency that is shattered by an in ight emergency.
56 . PLT330 IR.I.A.K6
If you experience tunnel vision and cyanosis you may have symptoms of
C) carbon monoxide poisoning.
AIM 8-1-3 Hypoxia At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet, the periphery of the visual field grays out to a point where only central vision remains (tunnel vision). A blue coloration (cyanosis) of the fingernails and lips develops. The ability to take corrective and protective action is lost in 20 to 30 minutes at 18,000 feet and 5 to 12 minutes at 20,000 feet, followed soon thereafter by unconsciousness.
57 . PLT105 IR.I.B.R2
The use of airborne weather-avoidance radar
A) provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.
B) assures the avoidance of hail.
C) allows you to fly safely between echoes.
AIM 7-1-27 and FAA H 8083-15 Instrument Flying Handbook Weather radar, airborne or ground based, normally reflects the areas of moderate to heavy precipitation (radar does not detect turbulence). The frequency and severity of turbulence generally increases with the radar reflectivity closely associated with the areas of highest liquid water content of the storm. A flightpath through an area of strong or very strong radar echoes separated by 20 to 30 miles or less may not be considered free of severe turbulence.
58 . PLT102 IR.I.C.K4
How can an initial approach fix be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?
A) All fixes that are labeled “IAF” which are depicted on the plan view.
B) Any fix depicted which is located on the final approach course.
C) Any fix depicted which is located on the final approach course prior to the final approach fix.
FAA H 8083-15 Instrument Flying Handbook The plan view provides a graphical overhead view of the procedure and depicts the routes that guide the pilot from the en route segments to the initial approach fix (IAF).
59 . PLT083 IR.VI.A.K1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 187.) When conducting a missed approach from the RNAV (GPS) X RWY 28L approach at PDX, what is the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering?
A) 2,100 feet MSL.
B) 4,000 feet MSL.
C) 5,800 feet MSL.
The MSA symbol is described in the Instrument Approach Procedures Legend. In this case it says MSA RWY28L 25 NM and is at 5800′ MSL.
60 . PLT128 IR.II.A.R3
A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is
A) keeping the autopilot engaged while monitoring the system.
B) periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane.
C) periodically disengaging and immediately reengaging the altitude hold function.
AC 91-74B Flight in Icing Conditions Pilots may consider periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane when operating in icing conditions. FAA H 8083-15 Airplane Flying Handbook Unless otherwise recommended in the AFM/POH, the autopilot should not be used in icing conditions. Continuous use of the autopilot masks trim and handling changes that occur with ice accumulation. Without this control feedback, the pilot may not be aware of ice accumulation building to hazardous levels. The autopilot suddenly disconnects when it reaches design limits, and the pilot may find the airplane has assumed unsatisfactory handling characteristics.