Touring Machine Company

I ran across an airport listed on the chart as OBJECTIONABLE and wondered what it was. The FAQs at AeroNav explain it.

What does “OBJECTIONABLE” stand for on VFR Charts?

The type “OBJECTIONABLE” associated with an airport symbol indicates that an objectionable airspace determination has been made for the airport per FAA Order JO 7400.2 Section 4, Airport Charting and Publication of Airport Data. Objectionable airspace determinations can be based upon a number of factors including conflicting traffic patterns with another airport, hazardous runway conditions, or natural or man-made obstacles in close proximity to the landing area. FAA Regional Airports Offices are responsible for airspace determinations.

When descending on an ILS you can descend to 100′ above the TDZE if you have the approach lighting system in sight. Cody Johnson wrote an article explaining how one pilot mis-interpreted what the rules allowed him to do, descended below 100′ when there were obstructions in the way and crashed into a hill.

Section 91.129(e)(3), Operations in Class D Airspace, is also extremely applicable in this accident. It says, ‘An airplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for safe landing.’

Class C and B incorporate Section 91.129(e)(3) by reference, so the rule applies in that airspace as well. It doesn’t specifically apply to operations at airports in Class E airspace.

My question is are there any ILS approaches in Class E airspace? Is there a a rule that prohibits them, or conversely, only allows them when there is a tower?

The question was answered on Aviation.StackExchange. There is at least one, Visalia. So why don’t you have to follow the glide slope at airports in Class E?

Steve Kahn did a series of shows for ABC in the late 1980s called “ABCs Wide
World of Flying”. He then made a few more and sold the series as DVDs. They are now up on YouTube on his channel. I’ve linked to many of them in previous posts and found this list of what is in each one. Barry Schiff, Phil Boyer, and Rod Machado feature in them and much of the content is still relevant. I’ll provide links and highlight the good parts as time permits. Here’s the whole list to get you started.

V.1 Piper Malibu, Takeoff Techniques, Engine Controls Rigged Right?, Sentimental Journey-The B17, Switching Tanks Safely, Flying the Lancair

V.2 Mooney 252, Morning Sickness, Argus 5000, ATC at Oshkosh, Avisit to Rhinebeck, NY, Touring AOPA, Lear Jet (Part 1)

V.3 Flying the Lear Jet (Part 2), Flight Quiz, Quiet Flight Intercom, Cessna Skylane, NDB Techniques, Tsunami at Reno 1987

V.4 Crossing the Atlantic, Flight Quiz 1, Inside a FSS, Flight Quiz 2, Flashlight Please, Rejected Takeoffs & Landings, Flight Quiz 3, Propeller Handling Tips, F4U Corsair

V.5 Flying the Trinidad and Tobago, Flight Quiz 1, Making Your Home Videos Fly, Instrument Rating in 10 Days, Midair Collision Avoidance, Those Hollywood Helicopters, Flight Quiz 2, Understanding Spins

V.6 Machen Superstar, Flight Quiz 1, Flight Plan Filing by PC, Flight Quiz 2, T-6 Transition, Wheeler Express, NASA Reporting System, Flying a Taildragger

V.7 How to Fly a Seaplane, Ground Ice Precautions, Flight Quiz, Glasair III, Aero Car, Winter Preflight, Moosehead Seaplane Splash-In, Desert Vision

V.8 Slip Tips, Leaning with EGT, Tie Down Tips, The Ultimate EGT, P-51, Destination Hawaii

V.9 Flight Control Failure, Flight Quiz 1, IFR Scan Techniques, Mooney Panel Update, Flight Safety International, Flight Quiz 2, Electrical Failure, Citabria Decathlon

V.10 Beechcraft Bonanza, Glass Cockpit, Bacuum Pump Failure, A-26 Invader, World’s Best Equipped Mooney, Spruce Goose

V.11 Emergency Glide Techniques, Mooney TLS, Bose Noise-Canceling Headset, Single Pilot IFR, P-40 Warhawk

V.12 Beechcraft Staggerwing, AltAlert, Airspace Quiz, Bushmaster, Top Gun for Everyone

V.13 T-28C, Faulty Gas Caps, Measuring Airspeed, Ryan TCAD, Helicopter Transition

V.14 Questair Venture, Atlantic Crossing Part 1, Fuel System Management, Accident Tracking, Bendix/King KLN-88, Behind the Scenes at Geneseo, After-Market Turbochargers

V. 15 Pitot Static Pitfalls, Cockpit Organization, Wildcat, Wake Turbulence, TBM-700, Changing Your Oil Filter, Atlantic Crossing Part 2

V.16 Cessna 310, Performing the Loop, You Can Buy a Warbird, Landing Gear Problems, Protection Against Corrosion, Determining Practical Range

V.17 Bellanca Viking 300, Swinging Your Compass, Airplane Painting, Nose Wheel Shimmy, Propeller Failure, Color Sky Map, Airborne Radar, Sun-N-Fun EAA FLy-in

V.18 Cessna 210, Engine Failure, Fire Extinguishers, AOPA Quiz 1, Idaho Airplane Camping, AirSport Pro, Do I Buy a Single or Twin, AOPA Quiz 2

V.19 Lancair, Aircraft Ditching, Propeller Clothing, Bamboo Bomber, Aviation Weather, Garmin GPS 100, Pilot Profile

V.20 The A.G. Tiger, Weight and Balance, NorthStar M2V GPS, Spartan Executive, Maneuvering Speed, Flying to Mexico, Engine Overhauls, Schiff and Son

V.21 Mooney MSE, Approach Lighting Systems, How Things Work, Supplemental Oxygen, Antiques, Fliers’ Fantasy Vacation, Cloud Chasers

V.22 Chipmunk, ASR-9 Radar, Cayman Caravan, Engine Instruments, IFR Departures, Gyroplane, Aerostar Convention

V.23 Commander 114B, Stabilized Approach, SR-71, Nova Scotia, GPS Approaches.

Pilot Controller Glossary
AREA NAVIGATION (RNAV) APPROACH CONFIGURATION:

a. STANDARD T− An RNAV approach whose design allows direct flight to any one of three initial approach fixes (IAF) and eliminates the need for procedure turns. The standard design is to align the procedure on the extended centerline with the missed approach point (MAP) at the runway threshold, the final approach fix (FAF), and the initial approach/ intermediate fix (IAF/IF). The other two IAFs will be established perpendicular to the IF.

b. MODIFIED T− An RNAV approach design for single or multiple runways where terrain or operational constraints do not allow for the standard T. The “T” may be modified by increasing or decreasing the angle from the corner IAF(s) to the IF or by eliminating one or both corner IAFs.

c. STANDARD I− An RNAV approach design for a single runway with both corner IAFs eliminated. Course reversal or radar vectoring may be required at busy terminals with multiple runways.

d. TERMINAL ARRIVAL AREA (TAA)− The TAA is controlled airspace established in conjunction with the Standard or Modified T and I RNAV approach configurations. In the standard TAA, there are three areas: straight-in, left base, and right base. The arc boundaries of the three areas of the TAA are published portions of the approach and allow aircraft to transition from the en route structure direct to the nearest IAF. TAAs will also eliminate or reduce feeder routes, departure extensions, and procedure turns or course reversal.

1. STRAIGHT-IN AREA− A 30NM arc centered on the IF bounded by a straight line extending through the IF perpendicular to the intermediate course.

2. LEFT BASE AREA− A 30NM arc centered on the right corner IAF. The area shares a boundary with the straight-in area except that it extends out for 30NM from the IAF and is bounded on the other side by a line extending from the IF through the FAF to the arc.

3. RIGHT BASE AREA−A 30NM arc centered on the left corner IAF. The area shares a boundary with the straight-in area except that it extends out for 30NM from the IAF and is bounded on the other side by a line extending from the IF through the FAF to the arc.

AIM 5−4−5. Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Charts
d. Terminal Arrival Area (TAA)

BruceAir gives some examples of how ATC might clear you into a TAA and what altitude they expect you to fly.

AIM 1−1−18. Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)
d. Flying Procedures with WAAS

7. The Along−Track Distance (ATD) during the final approach segment of an LNAV procedure (with a minimum descent altitude) will be to the MAWP. On LNAV/VNAV and LPV approaches to a decision altitude, there is no missed approach waypoint so the along−track distance is displayed to a point normally located at the runway threshold. In most cases, the MAWP for the LNAV approach is located on the runway threshold at the centerline, so these distances will be the same. This distance will always vary slightly from any ILS DME that may be present, since the ILS DME is located further down the runway. Initiation of the missed approach on the LNAV/ VNAV and LPV approaches is still based on reaching the decision altitude without any of the items listed in 14 CFR Section 91.175 being visible, and must not be delayed while waiting for the ATD to reach zero. The WAAS receiver, unlike a GPS receiver, will automatically sequence past the MAWP if the missed approach procedure has been designed for RNAV. The pilot may also select missed approach prior to the MAWP; however, navigation will continue to the MAWP prior to waypoint sequencing taking place.

Suppose you are flying into an airport with a VASI. When the VASI is in sight and you are descending on it, what should be your rate of descent?

AIM 2−1−2. Visual Glideslope Indicators
2. Two−bar VASI installations provide one visual glide path which is normally set at 3 degrees. Three−bar VASI installations provide two visual glide paths. The lower glide path is provided by the near and middle bars and is normally set at 3 degrees while the upper glide path, provided by the middle and far bars, is normally 1/4 degree higher. This higher glide path is intended for use only by high cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing height.

One way to find out would be to go out and fly it and see what rate of descent you need for various speeds. It’s complicated somewhat because your rate of descent depends on your groundspeed—not airspeed.

The FAA includes a table on the back cover of each Terminal Procedures Publication that tells you the rate of descent or climb for various ground speeds and angles.

The part we are interested in is shown below:

If you are on a 3° VASI then you should be descending a little less than 500 fpm in most small GA aircraft. If you are in a faster plane, then a little faster.

A general rule of thumb is that for a 3 degree glideslope the descent rate is 300′ per one nautical mile (according to the table it is actually 318 fpnm). A VASI is normally visible and the descent path is protected at 4 miles so you should be at about 1200 feet above the airport when the VASI becomes visible. Steeper than 3 degrees would be a little more.

Another convenient formula is to multiply your groundspeed (or airspeed if you have nothing else) by 5 to determine the approximate rate of descent to make good a 3 degree glideslope. (You can verify this by looking at the table.)

A typical approach speed for a light airplane is 90 knots which gives about 450 fpm which is a little lower than the 478 fpm you get from the table. In any event, close enough to get you there.

Now what about on the ILS?

AIM 1−1−9. Instrument Landing System (ILS)
d. Glide Slope/Glide Path
3. The glide path projection angle is normally adjusted to 3 degrees above horizontal so that it intersects the MM at about 200 feet and the OM at about 1,400 feet above the runway elevation.

It’s usually the same. Remember that it is groundspeed—not airspeed. So if you normally fly the approach at 100 kts, your groundspeed will probably be less than that—significantly so if there is a large headwind.

In a no-wind condition, we need to interpolate to get 100kts.

(637-478) * ⅓ + 478 = 531 kts.

I don’t think that any of the FAA books cover El Niños, but as flyers, we should be aware of their impact. The drought in California from 2012-2016 was primarily caused by the weather pattern associated with the lack of an El Niño, a La Niña, as well as the effects of global climate change. In 2017, the west coast has been hit with many atmospheric rivers caused by lingering effects of an El Niño.

The NASA Earth Observatory has a long article explaining how they form and the worldwide effects on weather.

14 CFR §91.205 Instrument and equipment requirements is fairly wordy, so to remember the equipment needed for day VFR pilots use A TOMATO FLAMES. For night flight and IFR you don’t really need any acronyms (though some people like GRABCARD for Instrument flight) since the additional items are fairly obvious.

Day VFR
Anti-collision lamps (certificated after March 11, 1996)

Tachometer
Oil pressure gauge
Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine
Airspeed indicator
Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine
Oil temperature gauge for each air cooled engine

Fuel level gauge
Landing gear position indicator
Altimeter
Magnetic direction indicator (Compass)
Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
Seat belts (and airplanes manufactured after July 18, 1978 Safety Harness)

Day VFR
Some people like to remember the day items by grouping them into categories:
Engine
Fuel level gauge
Oil temperature gauge for each air cooled engine
Oil pressure gauge
Tachometer

Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine
Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine

Instruments
Airspeed indicator
Altimeter
Magnetic direction indicator (Compass)

Safety
Seat belts
Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
Anti-collision lamps (certificated after March 11, 1996)
Landing gear position indicator
Safety Harness ( manufactured after July 18, 1978 )

Night
Everything from Day plus:
Adequate source of electrical energy
Fuses
Position indicator lamps

IFR
Everything from Day plus:
Generator or alternator of adequate capacity.
Two-way radio communication and navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown.
Clock

(Normal six pack except VSI)
Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
Gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator
Slip-skid indicator
Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon).
Gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro or equivalent).

IFR Mnemonic— GRABCARD
Generator or Alternator
Radios for Communication and Navigation
Altimeter – Sensitive
Ball – Slip/Skid Indicator
Clock
Attitude Indicator
Rate of Turn Indicator
Directional Gyro (Heading Indicator)

For Hire
Landing light at night
Flotation Device if outside gliding distance

§91.213 Inoperative instruments and equipment.
a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may take off an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met:

Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft—not likely for your aircraft.

The inoperative instruments and equipment are not— (i) Part of the VFR-day type certification instruments and equipment…

The inoperative instruments and equipment… Removed from the aircraft, the cockpit control placarded, and the maintenance recorded in accordance with §43.9 of this chapter; or
Deactivated and placarded “Inoperative.

You can fly with equipment that is inoperative provided that it is marked as INOP on the panel and an appropriate logbook entry has been made if maintenance has been performed.

Obviously, you cannot fly at night, IFR, or for hire if the equipment is on the list of required items. It is possible to fly with inoperative items, on the VFR list, if a ferry permit is obtained.

If you read the requirements carefully, you can see that they require an altimeter for day flight and at night they require a sensitive altimeter. I stumbled across this tidbit about J3 Cubs at the Air and Space Museum. Notice the lack of a Kollsman window. That why it isn’t a sensitive altimeter and an aircraft with this altimeter cannot fly IFR.

This altimeter was one of the standard instruments onboard the Piper Cub J-3 and L-4 aircraft. Designed by C.G. Taylor in 1931 to be economical and easy to fly, the Cub had only four instruments: an altimeter, a tachometer, an oil temperature gauge and pressure gauge.

Even if you have all the equipment for your flight you still may not be able to take off.
§91.213 Inoperative instruments and equipment.
(d) Except for operations conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, a person may takeoff an aircraft in operations conducted under this part with inoperative instruments and equipment without an approved Minimum Equipment List provided—

(3) The inoperative instruments and equipment are—
  (i) Removed from the aircraft, the cockpit control placarded, and the maintenance recorded in accordance with §43.9 of this chapter; or
  (ii) Deactivated and placarded “Inoperative.” If deactivation of the inoperative instrument or equipment involves maintenance, it must be accomplished and recorded in accordance with part 43 of this chapter; and…

The FAA has been emphasizing recognition and the antidote to hazardous attitudes and asks about them on most of the knowledge tests. The Pilots Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge (FAA-H-8083-25B) lists them.

Being fit to fly depends on more than just a pilot’s physical condition and recent experience. For example, attitude affects the quality of decisions. Attitude is a motivational predisposition to respond to people, situations, or events in a given manner. Studies have identified five hazardous attitudes that can interfere with the ability to make sound decisions and exercise authority properly: anti-authority, impulsivity, invulnerability, macho, and resignation.

Anti-authority: “Don’t tell me.”
This attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. In a sense, they are saying, “No one can tell me what to do.” They may be resentful of having someone tell them what to do or may regard rules, regulations, and procedures as silly or unnecessary. However, it is always your prerogative to question authority if you feel it is in error.

Impulsivity: “Do it quickly.”
This is the attitude of people who frequently feel the need to do something, anything, immediately. They do not stop to think about what they are about to do, they do not select the best alternative, and they do the first thing that comes to mind.
Invulnerability: “It won’t happen to me.”

Many people falsely believe that accidents happen to others, but never to them. They know accidents can happen, and they know that anyone can be affected. However, they never really feel or believe that they will be personally involved. Pilots who think this way are more likely to take chances and increase risk.

Macho: “I can do it.”
Pilots who are always trying to prove that they are better than anyone else think, “I can do it—I’ll show them.” Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks in order to impress others. While this pattern is thought to be a male characteristic, women are equally susceptible.

Resignation: “What’s the use?”
Pilots who think, “What’s the use?” do not see themselves as being able to make a great deal of difference in what happens to them. When things go well, the pilot is apt to think that it is good luck. When things go badly, the pilot may feel that someone is out to get them or attribute it to bad luck. The pilot will leave the action to others, for better or worse. Sometimes, such pilots will even go along with unreasonable requests just to be a “nice guy.”

Antidotes
Follow the rules. They are usually right.
Not so fast. Think first.
It could happen to me.
Taking chances is foolish.

None of this is new. The Air Force recognized this years ago and put out this movie.
F-86D Sabre Jet “No Sweat” circa 1955 United States Air Force Pilot Training Film

https://youtu.be/DBPwqnFaXx4

The FAA put out a movie that highlights some of these as well, especially the Don’t tell me. attitude.
Density Altitude with Harry Bliss

Will Liebhaber has a bunch of good videos for pilots. These are the ones that explain how to use the NACO AeroNav charts put out by the FAA—the charts that come with most EFBs like ForeFlight, WingsX, and Garmin Pilot. For the most part, the videos just explain stuff that you can get from reading the legend on the TPP, but if you are just starting out in your instrument training, these videos give you a basic understanding of approach charts in around 45 minutes. Even if you have been flying IFR for a while, you’ll probably pick up somethings that you didn’t know.

Approach Plate Basics

Approach Plate Margin Data

Approach Plate Pilot Briefing

Approach Plate Plan View

Approach Plate Profile View
Two observations on this video. For Part 91 operations, the pilot can start the approach no matter what ceiling and visibility is reported by the tower. That’s not the case for Part 135 and 121. Flight visibility, not reported visibility, determines whether the pilot can continue the approach. However, if the flight visibility is less than the minimum, then it is highly unlikely that the pilot will be able to see any of the 10 items required for landing.

His observation about the numbers in parentheses, while probably correct, is not what the legend says those numbers mean. According to the legend, they are for military use and can be ignored by civilian pilots.

Approach Plate Minima (Minimums) Section

Approach Plate Airport Diagram

Jeppesen vs. FAA (NACO) Instrument Charts

Approach Plate Overview with Fly8MA

Wednesday, February 24, 2010
I found this slide show on the FAA website and thought it was worth expanding.

Topics For Discussion
– Expected Performance And Equipment Required
– Alternates
– Airport Environment
– Fuel and Delays
– SIDs and STARs
– Enroute Procedures
– Approach Procedures
– Equipment Problems

Sources
– Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge – Airplane Flying Handbook
– Instrument Procedures Handbook
– Instrument Flying Handbook
– Practical Test Standards
– Federal Aviation Regulations

Expected Performance & Equipment Required

Expected Performance: Pilot
– Must have a current BFR Flight Review
– Must be Instrument Current or have a Current IPC (Instrument Proficiency Check)
– Instrument Experience Requirements

§61.57 Recent flight experience: Pilot in command.
(i) Six instrument approaches.
(ii) Holding procedures and tasks.
(iii) Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems.

• After the First 6 months
  FAA allows a 6 month grace period to become instrument current
  No longer allowed to use the Instrument Flight Rules
  Must use an appropriately rated safety pilot

14 CFR §91.109 Flight instruction; Simulated instrument flight and certain flight tests.
(1) The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who possesses at least a private pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown.

• Must make a logbook entry
14 CFR § 61.51 Pilot logbooks.
(3) For the purposes of logging instrument time to meet the recent instrument experience requirements of §61.57(c) of this part, the following information must be recorded in the person’s logbook—
  (i) The location and type of each instrument approach accomplished; and
  (ii) The name of the safety pilot, if required.

• After 12 months
Must conduct either an IPC with a CFII, a DPE, or take a new Instrument Checkride
(d) Instrument proficiency check. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a person who has failed to meet the instrument experience requirements of paragraph (c) for more than six calendar months may reestablish instrument currency only by completing an instrument proficiency check.

Expected Performance: Aircraft & Pilot
• Pilots should familiarize themselves with all the facilities and services available along the planned route of flight.
• Facilities: Runway length, Airport Elevation, Approaches, etc.
• Always know where the nearest VFR conditions can be found, and be prepared to head in that direction if the situation deteriorates or equipment malfunctions

Expected Performance: Aircraft

• ATC is expecting the aircraft to climb or descend at a minimum of 500 feet/minute
  If unable, advise ATC as soon as possible

• When the aircraft is within 1000 feet of altitude, ATC is expected the aircraft to climb from 500 to 1500 feet / minute

• If cleared for a DP or STAR, follow the charted altitudes and airspeeds

Required Equipment

• Must have VFR Day & Night Equipment in addition to:
• Required Aircraft IFR Equipment

– Generator (Alternator)
– Radios
– Altimeter (Pressure Sensitive)
– Ball (Inclinometer)
– Clock (Second Hand Sweep)
– Attitude Indicator
– Rate of Turn Indicator
– Directional Gyro
– Do not need a VSI

• Required Inspections
– Annual Inspection
– 100-Hour Inspection (If for hire)
– Transponder (Every 24 Calendar Months)
– Altimeter (Every 24 Calendar Months)
– Pitot Static System (Every 24 Calendar Months)
– ELT (Every 24 Calendar Months)
– VOR (Every 30 Days)

– Acronym A1TAPEV

• VOR Checks
– Airborne Checkpoint (+/- 6°)
– Ground Checkpoint (+/- 4°)
– VOT (+/- 4°)
– Dual VORs (+/- 4° difference)

Alternates

§91.167 (b) (2) (i) For aircraft other than helicopters. For at least 1 hour before and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles.

1–2–3 Rule
• 1 hour before or after your ETA
• 2000 foot ceiling or below
• 3 miles visibility or below

Do I need an alternate? (FAR 91)
• No symbol – airport is good to go with standard alternate minimums.
airport has nonstandard IFR alternate minimums Civil pilots should refer to the Alternate Minimums Section
signifies that this approach is Not Authorized for use as an alternate due to unmonitored facility or the absence of weather reporting service.

• Depending on type of approach into the airport and the weather reported at the ETA
– Precision Approach – 600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility
– Non Precision Approach – 800 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility
– No Published Approach – 1000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility

§91.169 IFR flight plan: Information required.
(c) IFR alternate airport weather minima. Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may include an alternate airport in an IFR flight plan unless appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate that, at the estimated time of arrival at the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility at that airport will be at or above the following weather minima:

(1) If an instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter, or a special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator, for that airport, the following minima:
  (i) For aircraft other than helicopters: The alternate airport minima specified in that procedure, or if none are specified the following standard approach minima:
    (A) For a precision approach procedure. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.
    (B) For a nonprecision approach procedure. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.

(2) If no instrument approach procedure has been published in part 97 of this chapter and no special instrument approach procedure has been issued by the Administrator to the operator, for the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility minima are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

§91.155 Basic VFR weather minimums.
(c) Except as provided in §91.157, no person may operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.

(d) Except as provided in §91.157 of this part, no person may take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport—
  (1) Unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 statute miles; or
  (2) If ground visibility is not reported at that airport, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 statute miles.

• How low can I go at the alternate?
– Precision Approach – 200 foot ceiling and 1/2 mile visibility
– Non Precision Approach – 400 foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility
– The minimums published on the approach

Airport Environment

• Takeoff Minimums
– In the event of an emergency, a decision must be made to either return to the departure airport or fly directly to a takeoff alternate.
– The FAA establishes takeoff minimums for every airport that has published Standard Instrument Approaches. Legally, under 14 CFR 91 a zero/zero departure may be made, but it is never advisable.

§91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.
(f) Civil airport takeoff minimums. This paragraph applies to persons operating an aircraft under part 121, 125, 129, or 135 of this chapter.
  (1) Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, no pilot may takeoff from a civil airport under IFR unless the weather conditions at time of takeoff are at or above the weather minimums for IFR takeoff prescribed for that airport under part 97 of this chapter.
  (2) If takeoff weather minimums are not prescribed under part 97 of this chapter for a particular airport, the following weather minimums apply to takeoffs under IFR:
    (i) For aircraft, other than helicopters, having two engines or less—1 statute mile visibility.
    (ii) For aircraft having more than two engines— 1⁄2 statute mile visibility.
    (iii) For helicopters— 1⁄2 statute mile visibility.

• AeroNav charts list takeoff minimums only for the runways at airports that have other than standard minimums. These takeoff minimums are listed by airport in alphabetical order in the front of the TPP booklet.

• If an airport has non-standard takeoff minimums, a will be placed in the notes sections of the instrument procedure chart.

Airport Diagrams
• For select airports, AeroNav prints an airport diagram.
If you don’t have access to them in your EFB, you can download them from the FAA

– It is a full page depiction of the airport that includes the same features of the airport sketch plus additional details such as taxiway identifiers, airport latitude and longitude, and building identification.

– The airport diagrams are also available in the Airport / Facility Directory Chart Supplement
– The sketch is depicted in the lower left or right of an IAP.
– It depicts the runways, their length, width, and slope, the touchdown zone elevation, the lighting system installed on the end of the runway, and taxiways.

Fuel & Delays

• Aircraft must have enough fuel to reach your destination, fly to your alternate, with an additional 45 minutes at cruise power

ASRS Callback

• Fuel Emergencies
– Declaring minimum fuel means you cannot accept undue delay in your flight
– Declaring an emergency and landing safely will not result in talking to the FAA
– However declaring and emergency and NOT landing safely, or refusing to declare and emergency and NOT landing safety will result in talking to the FAA

SIDs and STARs

• Departure procedures are preplanned routes that provide transitions from the departure airport to the en route structure.
– They also allow for efficient routing of traffic and reductions in pilot/controller workloads.
– Departure design criterion assumes an initial climb of 200 feet per nautical mile after crossing the departure end of the runway (DER) at a height of at least 35 feet and no turns before 400′ AGL

• There are two types of DPs: Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) and Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)

• Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) are only used for obstruction clearance and do not include ATC related climb requirements. An ODP must be developed when obstructions penetrate the 40:1 departure plain.

• SIDS are designed at the request of ATC in order to increase capacity of terminal airspace. The primary goal is to reduce ATC/pilot workload while providing seamless transitions to the en route structure

• DPs are also categorized by equipment requirements as follows:
– Non-RNAV DP. Established for aircraft equipped with conventional avionics using ground-based NAVAIDs
– RNAV DP. Established for aircraft equipped with RNAV avionics; e.g., GPS, VOR/DME, etc. Automated vertical navigation is not required. Prior to using GPS, RAIM availability should be checked with the receiver or a Flight Service Station
Standard Instrument Departures
– Radar DP. Radar SIDs are established when ATC has a need to vector aircraft on departure to a particular route, NAVAID, or Fix. Radar vectors may also be used to join conventional or RNAV navigation SIDs

Departure Procedure Responsibility
• Responsibility for the safe execution of departure procedures rests on the shoulders of both ATC and the pilot.
• ATC is responsible for specifying the direction of takeoff or initial heading when necessary, and including departure procedures as part of the ATC clearance when pilot compliance for separation is necessary.
• The pilot must acknowledge receipt and understanding of an ATC clearance, request clarification of clearances, request an amendment to a clearance if it is unacceptable from a safety perspective or cannot be complied with.

Departures from Tower-Controlled Airports
– Normally you request your IFR clearance through ground control or clearance delivery
– Once you have received your clearance, it is your responsibility to comply with the instructions as given and notify ATC if you are unable to comply with the clearance
– Communication frequencies for the various controllers are listed on departure, approach, and airport charts as well as the A/FD.

Departures from Airports Without an Operating Control Tower
– You should file your flight plan at least 30 minutes in advance
– During your planning phase, investigate the departure airport’s method for receiving an instrument clearance.
– You can contact the Flight Service Station on the ground by telephone and they will request your clearance from ATC
– You must depart the airport before the clearance void time; if you fail to depart, you must contact ATC by a specified notification time

AIM 5−2−8. Instrument Departure Procedures (DP) − Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP) and Standard Instrument Departures (SID)

1. Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all departures, including diverse, is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above the departure end of run- way elevation, climbing to 400 feet above the departure end of runway elevation before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM), unless required to level off by a crossing restriction, until the minimum IFR altitude.

ODPs are recommended for obstruction clearance and may be flown without ATC clearance unless an alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically assigned by ATC.

Ground Communications Outlets
– This has been developed in conjunction with the capability to contact ATC and AFSS via VHF radio to a telephone connection to obtain an instrument clearance or close a VFR/IFR flight plan
– You can use four key clicks on your VHF radio to contact the nearest ATC facility and six key clicks to contact the local AFSS, but it is intended to be used only as a ground operational tool
– The GCO should help relieve the need to use the telephone to call ATC and the need to depart into marginal conditions just to achieve radio contact
– GCO information is listed on airport charts and instrument approach charts with other communications frequencies

Standard Terminal Arrival Routes
• The STAR provides a common method for leaving the en route structure and navigating to your destination
• Big differences between DPs and Stars
• DPs start at the pavement and connect to the en route structure. STARs on the other hand, start at the en route structure and they end at a fix or NAVAID
• Primarily STARs serve multiple airports
• STAR procedures typically include a standardized descent gradient at and above 10,000 feet MSL of 318 feet per NM, or 3 degrees
• If a speed reduction is needed a general guideline is typically to add 1 NM for each ten knots

– STARs usually are named according to the point at which the procedure begins
– The STAR name is usually the same as the last fix on the en route transitions
– A STAR that commences at the CHINS Intersection becomes the CHINS ONE ARRIVAL.
– When a significant portion of the arrival is revised, such as an altitude, a route, or data concerning the NAVAID, the number of the arrival changes. For example, the CHINS ONE ARRIVAL is now the CHINS FOUR ARRIVAL
– In addition, some STARs require that you use DME and/or ATC RADAR

AIM 5−4−1. Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Procedures

c. Use of STARs requires pilot possession of at least the approved chart. RNAV STARs must be retrievable by the procedure name from the aircraft database and conform to charted procedure. As with any ATC clearance or portion thereof, it is the responsibility of each pilot to accept or refuse an issued STAR.

Holding Procedures
• Each holding pattern has a fix, a direction to hold, a course or radial, and the direction on which the aircraft is to hold
• Speed of the aircraft affects the size of a holding pattern therefore speed limits have been set depending on the altitude and ATC need
• Time plays another factor into a holding pattern. under 14,000 feet MSL, and 1 minute 30 seconds over 14,001 feet MSL.
• Time can be replaced by distance if the aircraft has DME or an IFR-certified GPS

• There are 3 entries an aircraft can use to enter a hold. Originally the FAA mandated the entry, today you can enter every hold from a direct entry if you desire

Altitude (MSL)    Airspeed (KIAS)    Leg Time
MHA - 6,000'           200           1 minute
6,001' - 14,000’       230           1 minute 30 Seconds
14,001' and above      265           1 minute 30 Seconds

AIM 5-3-8. Holding

i. An ATC clearance requiring an aircraft to hold at a fix where the pattern is not charted will include the following information: (See FIG 5-3-2.)
1. Direction of holding from the fix in terms of the eight cardinal compass points (i.e., N, NE, E, SE, etc.).
2. Holding fix (the fix may be omitted if included at the beginning of the transmission as the clearance limit).
3. Radial, course, bearing, airway or route on which the aircraft is to hold.
4. Leg length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be used (leg length will be specified in minutes on pilot request or if the controller considers it necessary).
5. Direction of turn if left turns are to be made, the pilot requests, or the controller considers it necessary.
6. Time to expect further clearance and any pertinent additional delay information.

Enroute Procedures

• Course To Be Flown
– Part 91.181 is the basis for the course to be flown
– Pilots must either fly along the centerline on an airway or, along the direct course between navigational aids
– The regulation also allows an aircraft to pass clear of other traffic in VFR conditions

§91.181 Course to be flown.

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within controlled airspace under IFR except as follows:
(a) On an ATS route, along the centerline of that airway.
(b) On any other route, along the direct course between the navigational aids or fixes defining that route. However, this section does not prohibit maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear of other air traffic or the maneuvering of the aircraft in VFR conditions to clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or descent.

Airway Structure
1.) Lower Stratum – an airway structure that extends from the base of controlled airspace to FL180.
2.) Second Stratum – contains identifiable Jet Routes from FL180 to FL450
3.) Third Stratum – Random point-to-point navigation above FL450

Air Route Traffic Control Centers

– ARTCCs provide the central authority for issuing IFR clearances and nationwide monitoring of each IFR flight
– There are 20 ARTCCs in the United States, and each containing between 20 to 80 sectors
– Appropriate radar and communication sites are connected to the Centers by microwave links and telephone lines
– When climbing after takeoff, an IFR flight is either in contact with a radar equipped local departure control or, in some areas, an ARTCC facility
– As a flight transitions to the en route phase, pilots typically expect a handoff from departure control to a Center frequency if not already in contact with the Center
– Accepting radar vectors from controllers does not relieve pilots of their responsibility for keeping track of altitude and position when during each phases of flight changes, and to aid in the management of air traffic

Preferred IFR Routes
– Preferred IFR routes are designed to provide a flow of air traffic in the major terminal and en route flight environments
– These routes are published in the Airport/Facility Directory Chart Supplement for the low and high altitude stratum
– These help pilots to plan a route to minimize route mileage
– Routes beginning or ending with a fix indicate that pilots will be routed to these fixes via a SID, vectors, or a STAR
– Routes where several airports are in proximity they are listed under the principal airport and categorized as a metropolitan area; e.g., New York Metro Area.
– If more than one route is listed both routes have equal priority for use.

Monitoring of Navigation Facilities
– VOR, VORTAC, VOR/DME, ILS facilities, NDBs, and Marker Beacons are provided with an internal monitoring feature
– Internal monitoring is provided at the facility through the use of equipment that causes a facility shutdown if performance deteriorates below established tolerances
– Older NDBs (both Federal and Non-Federal) do not have the internal feature and therefore are checked at least once each hour

– ARTCCs are usually the control point for NAVAID facility status.
– Pilots can also query the appropriate FAA facility if they have questions in flight regarding NAVAID status, or by checking the NOTAMs prior to flight since NAVAIDs and associated monitoring equipment are continuously changing

NAVAID Service Volume
-Each class of NAVAID (VOR, VOR/DME, or VORTAC) has an established operational service volume to ensure adequate signal coverage and frequency protection
-When using VORs for direct route navigation, the following guidelines apply:

• For operations that are off airways below 18,000 feet MSL, pilots should use aids not more than 80 NM apart

– If using GPS for the route, the pilot can fly outside the service volume of some NAVAIDs, during this operation, the pilot has a responsibility for staying on the authorized direct route
– ATC uses radar flight following for the purpose of aircraft separation. If ATC initiates a direct route that exceeds NAVAID service volume limits, ATC also provides radar navigational assistance as necessary

Changeover Points
– When flying airways, pilots normally change frequencies midway between navigation aids
– If the navigation signals cannot be received at the midpoint a COP is depicted and shows the distance in NM to each NAVAID
– COPs indicate the point where a frequency change is necessary to receive course guidance

– These change over points divide an airway or route segment and ensure continuous reception of navigation signals at the prescribed minimum en route IFR altitude
– Where radio frequency interference or other navigation signal problems exist, the COP is placed at the optimum location

IFR Enroute Altitudes
– For IFR operations, regulations require that pilots operate their aircraft at or above minimum altitudes
– Minimum altitude rules are designed to ensure safe vertical separation between the aircraft and the terrain

• Minimum Enroute Altitude
– This is the lowest published altitude that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements
– MEAs are established based upon obstacle clearance over terrain and manmade objects, although adequate communication at the MEA is not guaranteed

• Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
– This is the lowest published altitude in effect between VOR airways.
– This altitude assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR

• Minimum Vectoring Altitude
– These are established for use by ATC when being vectored. The MVA provides 1,000 feet of clearance above the highest obstacle and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas

– Some MVAs may be lower than MEAs, or MOCAs depicted on charts for a given location

• Maximum Authorized Altitude
– This is a published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude for a route segment
– MAAs represent procedural limits determined by limitations of ground based facilities.

• Minimum Reception Altitude
– This is the minimum altitude that a navigation signal can be received for the route and for off- course NAVAID facilities that determine a fix

• Minimum Crossing Altitude
– This is the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which the aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude
– MCAs are established where obstacles intervene to prevent pilots from maintaining obstacle clearance

– The standard for determining the MCA is based upon the following climb gradients
  Sea level through 5,000 feet MSL — 150 feet per NM
  5000 feet through 10,000 feet MSL — 120 feet per NM
  10,000 feet MSL and over — 100 feet per NM

• Minimum Turning Altitude
– MTAs the published minimum enroute altitude (MEA) may not be sufficient for obstacle clearance when a turn is required over a fix, NAVAID, or waypoint.

– Pilots must ensure they are at or above the charted MTA not later than the turn point and maintain at or above the MTA until joining the centerline of the ATS route following the turn point. Once established on the centerline following the turning fix, the MEA/MOCA determines the minimum altitude available for assignment.

• Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude
– This route provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000-foot (non-mountainous) and 2,000-foot (mountainous areas)
– OROCAs are intended primarily as a pilot tool for emergencies and situational awareness
– This altitude may not provide signal coverage.

IFR Cruising Altitude & VFR-On-Top
– In controlled airspace, pilots must maintain the altitude assigned by ATC
– When operating with a VFR-on-top clearance, any VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the direction of flight that allows the flight to remain in VFR conditions
– Any change in altitude must be reported to ATC and pilots must comply with all other IFR reporting procedures
– VFR-on-top is not authorized in Class A airspace

Reporting Procedures
– These are reports that should be made without a specific request from ATC
• VFR-on-top change in altitude
• Missed approach
• Leaving one assigned flight altitude for another
• Leaving any assigned holding fix or point
• Unable to climb or descend at least 500 feet per minute
• TAS variation from filed speed of 5% or 10 knots, whichever is greater
• Time and altitude upon reaching a holding fix
• Loss of NAV/Comm capability
• Unforecasted weather conditions or other information relating to the safety of flight

Non RADAR Reports
– If radar contact has been lost the CFRs require pilots to provide ATC with position reports over designated VORs
• Compulsory reporting points as depicted on IFR en route charts by solid triangles
• Leaving FAF or OM inbound on final approach
• Revised ETA of more than three minutes

Position Report
– Identification – (CPF 1256)
– Position–(FILMS)
– Time–(1215z)
– Altitude/FlightLevel–(5000)
– ETA over the next reporting fix – (MATAN IN 5 MIN)
– Following reporting point–(VHP VORTAC)
– Pertinent remarks

§91.187 Operation under IFR in controlled airspace: Malfunction reports.

(a) The pilot in command of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practical to ATC any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight.
(b) In each report required by paragraph (a) of this section, the pilot in command shall include the—
  (1) Aircraft identification;
  (2) Equipment affected;
  (3) Degree to which the capability of the pilot to operate under IFR in the ATC system is impaired; and
  (4) Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.

Approach Procedures

Weather Considerations
– Weather conditions generally determine which approaches can be used, or if an approach can even be attempted
– The primary concerns for approach decision-making are wind speed and direction, ceiling, visibility, and field conditions
– Wind speed and direction are factors because they often limit the type of approach that can be flown at a specific location

Approach Speed and Category
– Two other critical performance factors are: aircraft approach category and planned approach speed
– According to 14 CFR Part 97.3 (b), aircraft approach category is based on the landing speed (if not specified 1.3 VS0 at max gross weight)
– The categories are as follows:
• Category A: Speed less than 91 knots.
• Category B: Speed 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots.
• Category C: Speed 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots.
• Category D: Speed 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots.
• Category E: Speed 166 knots or more.

– An airplane is certified in only one approach category although a faster approach speed may be used
– If a faster approach speed is used the minimums for the appropriate higher category must be used

Circling Approaches
– An airplane cannot be flown to the minimums of a slower approach category
– Published circling minimums provide obstacle clearance only within the appropriate area of protection based on the approach category speed
– The circling approach area is the obstacle clearance area for airplanes maneuvering to land on a runway that does not meet the criteria for a straight-in approach
– A minimum of 300 feet of obstacle clearance is provided in the circling segment
– Pilots should remain at or above the circling altitude until the airplane is in a position from which a descent to a landing can be made

Chart Format – Chart Identification

– Procedures that allow a pilot to land straight in when conditions permit have a runway number in the chart identification

– Procedures without Straight-In Minimums have a letter after the type of approach

• Chart Format – Notes Section
– Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums, and Non- Standard Alternate Minimums
– Inoperative components

• Minimum Safe Altitude
– These are published for emergency use on IAP charts
– The MSA is normally based on the primary omnidirectional facility on which the IAP is predicated
– MSAs are expressed in feet MSL and normally have a 25NM radius

– Ideally, a single sector altitude is established and depicted on the planview of approach charts
– MSAs provide 1,000 feet clearance over all obstructions and may not have acceptable navigation signal coverage

• Chart Format – Vertical Navigation Information

• Chart Format – Vertical Guidance Approach Minimums

• Chart Format – Airport Sketch

Operations below DA, DH, or MDA
– No pilot may operate an aircraft below the MDA or the DH unless —

• (1) The aircraft must be in a position to make a normal landing straight in
• (2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure
• (3) At least one of the following visual references
– The threshold.
– The threshold markings
– The threshold lights
– The runway end identifier lights
– The visual approach slope indicator
– The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings
– The touchdown zone lights
– The runway or runway markings
– The runway lights

– The approach light system only allow a pilot to descend 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference

§91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.

(c) Operation below DA/ DH or MDA.… no pilot may operate an aircraft… below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless—
  (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
  (ii) The threshold.
  (iii) The threshold markings.
  (iv) The threshold lights.
  (v) The runway end identifier lights.
  (vi) The visual approach slope indicator.
  (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
  (viii) The touchdown zone lights.
  (ix) The runway or runway markings.
  (x) The runway lights.

Visual Approaches
– A visual approach is an ATC authorization for an aircraft on an IFR flight plan to proceed visually to the airport – it is not an IAP
– Once pilots report the aircraft in sight, they assume the responsibilities for their own separation and wake turbulence avoidance
– Also, there is no missed approach segment
– It is authorized when the ceiling is reported or expected to be at least 1,000 feet AGL and the visibility is at least 3 SM
– Pilots must remain clear of the clouds at all times while conducting a visual approach

Instrument Landing Systems
– A system that allows an aircraft both vertical and horizontal guidance to land in IMC conditions

ILS Approach Categories
– There are three general classifications of ILS approaches — CAT I, CAT II, and CAT III
• CAT I — DH 200 feet and RVR 2,400 feet
• CAT II — DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet
• CAT IIIa — No DH or DH below 100 feet and RVR not less than 700 feet
• CAT IIIb — No DH or DH below 50 feet and RVR less than 700 feet but not less than 150 feet
• CAT IIIc — No DH and no RVR limitation
– To date, no U.S. operator has received approval for CAT IIIc approaches

VOR Approach
– VOR approaches use VOR facilities both on and off the airport to establish approaches
– All VOR approaches are non-precision approaches, and can provide MDAs as low as 250 feet above the runway
– VOR also offers a flexible advantage in that an approach can be made toward or away from the navigational facility
– When DME is included in the title of the VOR approach, operable DME must be installed in order to fly the approach

NDB Approach
– NDB approach can be designed using facilities both on and off the airport
– For the NDB to be considered an on-airport facility, the facility must be located within one mile of any portion of the landing runway

Localizer Approaches
– Typically, when the localizer is discussed, it is thought of as a nonprecision approach
– A localizer is always aligned within 3 degrees of the runway, and it is afforded a minimum of 250 feet obstacle clearance in the final approach area

Localizer Back Course
– In cases where an ILS is installed, a back course may be available in conjunction with the localizer
– The localizer approach system can provide both precision and nonprecision approach capabilities to a pilot
– In either case, the localizer provides an on precision approach using a localizer transmitter installed at a specific airport
– The back course does not offer a glide slope and it can project a false glide slope signal and should be ignored
– Reverse sensing will occur on the back course using standard VOR equipment

Equipment Problems • Communication Failure

– Two-way radio communication failure procedures for IFR operations are outlined in 14 CFR Part 91.185
– Pilots can use the transponder to alert ATC to a radio communication failure by squawking code 7600
– If only the transmitter is INOP, listen for ATC instructions on any operational receiver (This could also be any VOR, VOR / DME, VORTAC, ILS, or NDB frequency)
– If the radio fails in VFR conditions, continue the flight under VFR conditions and land as soon as practicable

– If pilots must continue their flight under IFR conditions after experiencing two-way radio communication failure, they should fly one of the following routes:
• 1.) The route assigned by ATC in the last clearance
• 2.) If being radar vectored, the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway
• 3.) The route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance
• 4.) The route filed in the flight plan.

– The altitude to fly after a communication failure can be found in Part 91.185
• The altitude in the last ATC clearance.
• The minimum altitude for IFR operations.
• The altitude ATC has advised to expect

§91.185 IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure.

(a) General. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each pilot who has two-way radio communications failure when operating under IFR shall comply with the rules of this section.
(b) VFR conditions. If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
(c) IFR conditions. If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if paragraph (b) of this section cannot be complied with, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following:
  (1) Route. (i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received;
  (ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance;
  (iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or
  (iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.
(2) Altitude. At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown:
  (i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received;
  (ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level as prescribed in §91.121(c)) for IFR operations; or
  (iii) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.
(3) Leave clearance limit. (i) When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.
  (ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.

I ran across this video by Andy Munnis and it’s full of interesting stuff about the oral portion of the checkride.

This is the AIM Cold Temperature Error Table that he references in the talk. And the Fort Collins Departure Procedure.

Note the minimum turning altitudes (MTA) at Allan.

This FAA presentation has lots of good stuff you need to know for your checkride—and when flying IFR.

Andy also has a private pilot checkride video.

The first part of an IFR checkride is the oral. It shouldn’t be difficult to pass if you know the basics of instrument planning. The John at FLY8MA.com Flight Training goes through a simulated oral with a DPE.

Jason at MZAero has lots of videos that are pretty good. Here he is doing an interactive video that has lots of good stuff interspersed with giveaways and irrelevant chatter. He’s an acquired taste and this is mostly an ad for his checkride prep courses but probably worth investing the hour, especially if you skip the annoying stuff and maybe give up at the halfway point.

Here’s another DPE discussing the PTS and how it applies to the instrument checkride.

I haven’t had a chance to watch these yet, but given the content in her instrument video, I suspect that they’ll be informative but dull.

The TPP has a section containing alternate minimums for approaches. It starts off with this paragraph.

Standard alternate minimums for non-precision approaches and approaches with vertical guidance [NDB, VOR, LOC, TACAN, LDA, SDF, VOR/DME, ASR, RNAV (GPS) or RNAV (RNP)] are 800-2. Standard alternate minimums for precision approaches (ILS, PAR, or GLS) are 600-2. Airports within this geographical area that require alternate minimums other than standard or alternate minimums with restrictions are listed below. NA – means alternate minimums are not authorized due to unmonitored facility, absence of weather reporting service, or lack of adequate navigation coverage. Civil pilots see FAR 91. IFR Alternate Minimums: Ceiling and Visibility Minimums not applicable to USA/USN/USAF. Pilots must review the IFR Alternate Minimums Notes for alternate airfield suitability.

The first part is straightforward. In order to use an approach as an alternate when filing an IFR flight plan, the visibility has to be 2 statute miles and the ceiling has to be 800′ AGL if the approach is non-precision. It has to be 2 statute miles and the ceiling has to be 600′ AGL for precision approaches. If the minimums are different for an approach then the non-standard minimums are listed. They can be things like NA when control tower closed. or NA when local weather not available. as well as increased visibility and ceiling. The minimums are specific to each approach.

What confused me is the NA notation. When I first saw it on the chart, I assumed that the approach was not available as an alternate. But when I read the note above, NA – means alternate minimums are not authorized due to unmonitored facility, absence of weather reporting service, or lack of adequate navigation coverage. I was a bit confused. Does it mean that alternate minimums are not available and you can use standard minimums? Or does it mean that no alternate minimums apply to this approach, therefore it can’t be used as an alternate.

It turns out that what it means is that the approach is not available to be used as an alternate when filing an IFR flight plan. If there is another approach that is available for use as an alternate, and the pilot needs to fly to the airport, the approach can be flown if the approach minimums are met at the time of arrival. Andy Munnis explains it well (beginning at the 51 minute mark):

I was watching a video by Andy Munnis and he talked about a fix outside of Denver that has a fairly lengthy list of MTAs. I had never heard of them before so I pulled up the chart to see what he was talking about.

At first glance the altitudes don’t make any sense. Most of them are higher than the MEA on the airway that the pilot is turning onto. So I resorted to searching for an explanation.

Based on this Charting Notice, I think they are a recent addition to the IFR charts.

Due to increased airspeeds at 10,000 ft MSL or above, the published Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) may not be sufficient for obstacle clearance when a turn is required at a Fix, NAVAID, or Waypoint. In these instances, the area in the vicinity of the turn point is evaluated to determine whether the published MEA is sufficient for obstacle clearance.

In some locations (normally mountainous), terrain/obstacles in the expanded search area may necessitate a higher minimum altitude while conducting the turning maneuver. A Fix, NAVAID, or Waypoint requiring a higher Minimum Turning Altitude (MTA) will be denoted on government charts by the Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA) icon (“X” flag) and an accompanying note describing the MTA restriction. An MTA restriction note will normally consist of the Air Traffic Service (ATS) route leading to the turn point, the ATS route leading from the turn point, and the required altitude; e.g., MTA V330 E TO V520 W 16000. When an MTA is applicable for the intended route of flight, pilots must ensure they are at or above the charted MTA not later than the turn point and maintain at or above the MTA until joining the centerline of the ATS route following the turn point.

When we look at the terrain to the northwest of ALLAN, we see that it rises sharply. Given the explanation above, that’s probably how they came up with the minimum altitudes for turning aircraft.

The first sentence in the Charting Notice starts with, Due to increased airspeeds at 10,000 ft MSL or above. This is just a reference to the elimination of the speed restriction for aircraft flying at 10,000 MSL and above. In the case of the ALLAN intersection, all of the MEAs are well above 10,000′ MSL.

Here’s a new MTA where the intersection is very busy and it might be easy to miss the MTA, especially since V187 (which crosses POM an goes to HASSA) has an MEA of 6,500 between POM and HASSA and an MCA of 10,000 at HASSA. The MTA of 11,800 is somewhat unexpected.

It should be pointed out that ATC will be assigning aircraft on these routes altitudes and speeds so the MTAs and MCAs will not be an issue. They are only an issue for pilots in the case of lost communications.

I looked at a Jeppesen chart from 24DEC10 and there is no MTA at ALLAN and the 16APR10 chart containing POM has no MTA either. So that reinforces the inference that the Chart Notice is the introduction of the concept.

The information in the Charting Notice has been incorporated into the AIM.
AIM 5−3−7. Minimum Turning Altitude (MTA)

Due to increased airspeeds at 10,000 ft MSL or above, the published minimum enroute altitude (MEA) may not be sufficient for obstacle clearance when a turn is required over a fix, NAVAID, or waypoint. In these instances, an expanded area in the vicinity of the turn point is examined to determine whether the published MEA is sufficient for obstacle clearance. In some locations (normally mountainous), terrain/obstacles in the expanded search area may necessitate a higher minimum altitude while conducting the turning maneuver. Turning fixes requiring a higher minimum turning altitude (MTA) will be denoted on government charts by the minimum crossing altitude (MCA) icon (“x” flag) and an accompanying note describing the MTA restriction. An MTA restriction will normally consist of the air traffic service (ATS) route leading to the turn point, the ATS route leading from the turn point, and the required altitude; e.g., MTA V330 E TO V520 W 16000. When an MTA is applicable for the intended route of flight, pilots must ensure they are at or above the charted MTA not later than the turn point and maintain at or above the MTA until joining the centerline of the ATS route following the turn point. Once established on the centerline following the turning fix, the MEA/MOCA determines the minimum altitude available for assignment. An MTA may also preclude the use of a specific altitude or a range of altitudes during a turn. For example, the MTA may restrict the use of 10,000 through 11,000 ft MSL. In this case, any altitude greater than 11,000 ft MSL is unrestricted, as are altitudes less than 10,000 ft MSL provided MEA/MOCA requirements are satisfied.

I found this link when looking for something else and thought it was worth sharing. It gives a good overview of the different roles and responsibilities of the people in the ATC system.

When studying for the IFR Knowledge Test I ran across a couple of questions on contact and visual approaches. According to the AIM, Pilots operating in accordance with an IFR flight plan, provided they are clear of clouds and have at least 1 mile flight visibility and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in those conditions, may request ATC authorization for a contact approach. and A visual approach is conducted on an IFR flight plan and authorizes a pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. The pilot must have either the airport or the preceding identified aircraft in sight. This approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate air traffic control facility. Reported weather at the airport must have a ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles or greater. ATC may authorize this type approach when it will be operationally beneficial. Visual approaches are an IFR procedure conducted under IFR in visual meteorological conditions. Cloud clearance requirements of 14 CFR Section 91.155 are not applicable,.

A visual approach makes a lot of sense to me. It’s a lot like Special VFR in many respects. The pilot may have better visibility and cloud clearance than the airport is reporting and can safely skip the full approach or the pilot can see landmarks that will get them to the airport. A contact approach on the other hand doesn’t make a lot of sense. So I went searching for why someone would ask for one and now I’m not perplexed.

I’ve issued a contact before at a class D airport…weather was 2 miles vis and 2800 ovc…a/c broke out of the clouds on the downwind vector i had issued, made him understand i couldn’t issue the visual, and he took a hint about a contact approach and was cleared for the contact approach.

I sometimes fly into a Fly In community that is about 4 miles from an Uncontrolled field with a ILS. If weather is bad, I will fly the ILS then request the contact approach when I can see the ground and proceed to my airport. The key is to know the area well and know where all obstructions are. But it is a handy tool if you know where you are going.

I have shot several contact approaches. The most frequent use is when on a downwind you can see the runway and know you can proceed visually from that point even though the ATIS is calling below VFR Mins (Either old ATIS or only half the field under cloud deck).

This is exactly where I’ve used it. Usually the ATIS is over 30 min old, and the vis is improved, but since it’s reported below VFR, you won’t get a visual approach clearance. I will also mention my total agreement that you must be familiar with the airport you’re going to. Saving 15 minutes in a place you have no idea what’s around isn’t worth it if you hit something etc….

This article gives an examples with pictures. And ATC is trying to clear us for the visual – but the sun is working against us. It’s hazy, and we can’t see the airport. Denver Approach calls out a Challenger in front of us – but we can’t see it, either. The sun shining through the haze is too thick. So now what?

A takeaway for us pilots is that when cleared for a visual to an uncontrolled field, we tie up that airport — and maybe other nearby airports — until we cancel IFR. That may seem bizarre on a CAVU day when the pattern could be full of VFR aircraft, but it’s true. So if you can cancel, do it. If you can’t contact ATC directly, try relaying through that aircraft behind you. And if you’re the aircraft behind waiting for the visual, call to the person in front and see if they’re willing to cancel, or just cancel yourself and proceed VFR. Jeff Van West

These are the questions on the Sample Test and the answers that I found. The procedure that I used to find the answers was to put all of the relevant FAA publications in a folder and then search for words in the question or the correct answer. Since the FARs are regulatory and the AIM while not regulatory, provides information which reflects examples of operating techniques and procedures which may be re- quirements in other federal publications or regulations., if the answer appeared in either of those, I used it as the source. Next in order of priority were the Airplane Flying Handbook, and Pilots Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge. There is a lot of information in these two publications that is also found word-for-word in the AIM.

For the most part, the FAA publications give the same answer no matter which source you choose, so it doesn’t matter if you study a more accessible publication rather than trying to wade through the AIM.

The ACS codes are matched with each question at the end of the Knowledge Test Guide so you can look up the answer in the appropriate FAA publication if you don’t like source for the answer I gave.

Some of the questions reference charts, tables, and images that are found in the Test Supplement Booklets.

I answered the questions based on my knowledge without looking things up or verifying them. They could be wrong, especially if there are “trick” questions that I missed. I’ll provide sources as time allows.

Private Pilot Airplane Sample Exam with ACS Codes

1 . PLT025 PA.I.F.K6
Which statement relates to Bernoulli`s principle?
A) For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
B) An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward.
C) Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
—A—

2 . PLT168 PA.I.F.K6
The term `angle of attack` is defined as the angle between the
A) chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
B) airplane`s longitudinal axis and that of the air striking the airfoil.
C) airplane`s center line and the relative wind.
—A—

3 . PLT391 PA.VI.B.K3
While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
A) 121.5 MHz.
B) 122.5 MHz.
C) 128.725 MHz.
—A—

4 . PLT008 PA.I.F.K1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 38.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.
Pressure altitude = 5,000 ft
Headwind = Calm
Temperature = 101 °F
A) 445 feet.
B) 545 feet.
C) 495 feet.
—A—

5 . PLT124 PA.VI.A.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 35 to 50°F on the density
altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?
A) 1,000-foot increase.
B) 1,100-foot decrease.
C) 1,300-foot increase.
—A—

6 . PLT278 PA.VI.A.K13
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 35.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to
achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F higher than standard.
A) 19.8 inches Hg.
B) 20.8 inches Hg.
C) 21.0 inches Hg.
—A—

7 . PLT008 PA.I.F.K1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 38.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
Pressure altitude = 5,000 ft
Headwind = 8 kts
Temperature = 41 °F
Runway = Hard surface
A) 837 feet.
B) 956 feet.
C) 1,076 feet.
—A—

8 . PLT402 PA.IX.A.K9
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
A) 118.0 and 118.8 MHz.
B) 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.
C) 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.
—A—

9 . PLT473 PA.I.G.K1b
What is one purpose of wing flaps?
A) To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
B) To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.
C) To decrease wing area to vary the lift.
—A—

10 . PLT497 PA.IX.A.K11
Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?
A) 1200.
B) 7600.
C) 7700.
—A—

11 . PLT136 PA.IX.C.K1
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are
generally considered to be
A) more susceptible to icing.
B) equally susceptible to icing.
C) less susceptible to icing.
—A—

12 . PLT190 PA.I.G.R6
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of
carburetor ice would most likely be
A) a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
B) engine roughness.
C) loss of RPM.
—A—

13 . PLT132 PA.I.G.K1h
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
A) Maneuvering speed.
B) Turbulent or rough-air speed.
C) Never-exceed speed.
—A—

14 . PLT215 PA.VI.A.K10
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by
A) northerly turning error.
B) certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.
C) the difference in location of true north and magnetic north.
—A—

15 . PLT497 PA.IX.A.K11
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
A) 7200.
B) 7000.
C) 7500.
—A—

16 . PLT141 PA.II.D.K2
This sign confirms your position on
A) runway 22.
B) routing to runway 22.
C) taxiway 22.
—A—

17 . PLT444 PA.IV.B.K7
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A) Pilot in command.
B) Air Traffic Controller.
C) Second in command.
—A—

18 . PLT147 PA.III.B.K2
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 47.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI,
the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
A) above the glide slope.
B) below the glide slope.
C) on the glide slope.
—B—

19 . PLT141 PA.II.D.K2
From the cockpit, this marking confirms the aircraft to be
A) on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone.
B) on a runway, about to clear.
C) near an instrument approach clearance zone.
—A—

20 . PLT141 PA.II.D.K2
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 64.) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?
A) A.
B) C.
C) E.
—A—

21 . PLT077 PA.II.D.K2
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 48.) The portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
A) landing.
B) taxiing and takeoff.
C) taxiing and landing.
—A—

22 . PLT064 PA.I.D.K8
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 78.) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the
Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
A) 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally
from the clouds.
B) 0 statute miles, clear of clouds.
C) 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
—A—

23 . PLT393 PA.I.E.K4
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A) Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
B) Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
C) Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
—A—

24 . PLT161 PA.I.E.K2
The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally
A) 10 NM.
B) 20 NM.
C) 30 NM.
—A—

25 . PLT044 PA.VI.B.K3
ATC advises, “traffic 12 o`clock.” This advisory is relative to your
A) true course.
B) ground track.
C) magnetic heading.
—A—

26 . PLT119 PA.III.B.K3
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating
A) in Class B airspace.
B) in conditions of reduced visibility.
C) within 15 miles of a towered airport.
—A—

27 . PLT208 PA.IX.A.K1
When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will
A) increase the chances of shock cooling the engine.
B) assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare.
C) nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.
—A—

29 . PLT078 PA.III.A.K2
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 52.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
A) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
B) Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories.
C) Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.
—A—

30 . PLT354 PA.VI.B.K2
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight,
A) the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information.
B) the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
C) GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS satellites are available.
—A—

31 . PLT101 PA.I.D.K8
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 25, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
A) VOR.
B) VORTAC.
C) VOR/DME.
—A—

32 . PLT012 PA.I.D.K4
How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?
A) 14.25 NM.
B) 15.00 NM.
C) 14.50 NM.
—A—

33 . PLT078 PA.I.D.S9
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 52.) Where is Loup City Municipal located in relation to the city?
A) Northeast approximately 3 miles.
B) Northwest approximately 1 mile.
C) East approximately 7 miles.
—A—

34 . PLT064 PA.I.E.K3
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are
A) 1 mile and clear of clouds.
B) 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
C) 3 miles and clear of clouds.
—A—

35 . PLT300 PA.VI.B.K1
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing
selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read
A) 180° FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT.
B) 0° TO or 180° FROM, regardless of the pilot`s position from the VOT.
C) 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot`s position from the VOT.
—A—

36 . PLT078 PA.I.D.S9
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 52.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
A) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
B) Minneapolis Center on 128.75 MHz.
C) Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz.
—A—

37 . PLT064 PA.I.E.K2
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 20, area 1.) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?
A) Class C.
B) Class E.
C) Class G.
—A—

38 . PLT044 PA.III.A.K2
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or
takeoffs at all towered airports
A) regardless of weather conditions.
B) only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
C) within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
—A—

39 . PLT508 PA.I.B.K1c
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next
inspection will be due no later than
A) September 30, 2015.
B) September 1, 2016.
C) September 30, 2016.
—A—

40 . PLT163 PA.I.E.K3
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000
feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.
—A—

41 . PLT384 PA.II.B.K4
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of
A) all passengers.
B) the pilot in command.
C) the right seat pilot.
—A—

42 . PLT434 PA.III.A.K2
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over
the area prior to entering which class airspace?
A) Class C.
B) Class E.
C) Class G.
—A—

43 . PLT371 PA.I.A.K7
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
A) Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
C) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
—A—

44 . PLT369 PA.I.E.K3
In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited?
A) Class E airspace not designated for federal airways above 1,500 feet AGL.
B) Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.
C) Class G airspace above 1,500 feet AGL.
—A—

45 . PLT163 PA.I.E.K3
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000
feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
A) 500 feet.
B) 1,000 feet.
C) 1,500 feet.
—A—

46 . PLT141 PA.III.A.K3
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
A) taxi at a faster speed.
B) taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.
C) return to the starting point on the airport.
—A—

47 . PLT372 PA.I.B.K1c
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours.
When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
A) 3312.5 hours.
B) 3395.5 hours.
C) 3402.5 hours.
—A—

48 . PLT081 PA.I.C.K3
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 16.) What sky condition and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the
eastern portions after 2300Z?
A) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.
B) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 nautical miles visibility.
C) Ceiling 100 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.
—A—

49 . PLT514 PA.I.C.S1
When speaking to a flight service weather briefer, you should state
A) the pilot in command`s full name and address.
B) a summary of your qualifications.
C) whether the flight is VFR or IFR.
—A—

50 . PLT495 PA.I.C.K4h
The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with
A) formation of the anvil top.
B) the start of precipitation.
C) continuous downdrafts.
—A—

51 . PLT274 PA.I.C.K2
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the
A) inflight aviation weather advisories.
B) weather depiction chart.
C) area forecast.
—A—

52 . PLT081 PA.I.C.K3
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 16.) The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the twenty-fifth at
A) 0800Z.
B) 1400Z.
C) 1945Z.
C ?

53 . PLT514 PA.I.C.K1
You plan to phone a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information. You should
A) provide the number of occupants on board.
B) identify yourself as a pilot.
C) begin with your route of flight.
A ?

54 . PLT516 PA.I.C.K4b
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is
primarily due to
A) stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
B) friction between the wind and the surface.
C) stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
—A—

55 . PLT192 PA.I.C.K4f
When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope, it
A) produces stratus type clouds.
B) causes showers and thunderstorms.
C) develops convective turbulence.
—A—

56 . PLT076 PA.I.C.K3
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
A) 230° true at 56 knots.
B) 230° true at 39 knots.
C) 230° magnetic at 56 knots.
—A—

57 . PLT081 PA.I.C.K3
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figure 16.) What sky conditions and obstructions to visibility are forecast for upper
Michigan in the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z?
A) Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.
B) Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 nautical miles in mist.
C) Ceiling becoming 100 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.
—A—

58 . PLT301 PA.I.C.K4c
When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience
A) clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft.
B) good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.
C) an increase in temperature as altitude increases.
—A—

59 . PLT128 PA.I.C.K4k
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
A) Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift.
B) Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness.
C) Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.
—A—

60 . PLT021 PA.I.F.S1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2G, Figures 32 and 33.) Which action can adjust the airplane`s weight to maximum gross
weight and the CG within limits for takeoff?
Front seat occupants = 425 lbs
Rear seat occupants = 300 lbs
Fuel, main tanks = 44 gal
A) Drain 12 gallons of fuel.
B) Drain 9 gallons of fuel.
C) Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.

These are the questions on the Sample Test and the answers that I found. The procedure that I used to find the answers was to put all of the relevant FAA publications in a folder and then search for words in the question or the correct answer. Since the FARs are regulatory and the AIM while not regulatory, provides information which reflects examples of operating techniques and procedures which may be requirements in other federal publications or regulations., if the answer appeared in either of those, I used it as the source. Next in order of priority were the Instrument Flying Handbook, and Instrument Procedures Handbook. There is a lot of information in these two publications that is also found word-for-word in the AIM.

For the most part, the FAA publications give the same answer no matter which source you choose, so it doesn’t matter if you study a more accessible publication rather than trying to wade through the AIM.

The ACS codes are matched with each question at the end of the Instrument Knowledge Test Guide so you can look up the answer in the appropriate FAA publication if you don’t like source for the answer I gave.

Some of the questions reference charts, tables, and images that are found in the Test Supplement Booklets.

To see the answer, highlight the area next to the — as if you were going to copy it.

Instrument Rating Airplane Sample Exam with ACS Codes

1 . 0PLT172 IR.III.A.K8
ATC can issue a STAR
A) to all pilots wherever STARs are available.
B) only if the pilot requests a STAR in the `Remarks` section of the flight plan.
C) when ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests `NoSTAR.`
—C
STAR Procedures
FAA-H-8083-16 Instrument Procedures Handbook Pilots may accept a STAR within a clearance or they may file for one in their flight plan. As the aircraft nears its destination airport, ATC may add a STAR procedure to its original clearance. Keep in mind that ATC can assign a STAR even if the aircrew has not requested one. Use of a STAR requires pilot possession of at least the approved chart. RNAV STARs must be retrievable by the procedure name from the aircraft database and conform to charted procedure. If an aircrew does not want to use a STAR, they must specify “No STAR” in the remarks section of their flight plan. Pilots may also refuse the STAR when it is given to them verbally by ATC, but the system works better if the aircrew advises ATC ahead of time.

2 . 0PLT128 IR.V.B.R1
On initial climb-out after takeoff and with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation you can expect
A) ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA.
B) the autopilot to hold the vertical speed, if the anti-icing boots are working.
C) the increased air flow under the wings to prevent the accumulation of ice.
—A
AC 91-74B Flight In Icing Conditions 5-6. TAKEOFF AND CLIMBOUT b. Ice Accumulation. Airplanes are vulnerable to ice accumulation during the initial climbout in icing conditions because lower speeds often translate into a higher Angle of Attack (AOA). This exposes the underside of the airplane and its wings to the icing conditions and allows ice to accumulate further aft than it would in cruise flight. At rotation and climbout, some aircraft occasionally are susceptible to stall warning horn activation in icing. Pilot awareness of this hazard in his or her particular aircraft is important to maintain situational awareness.

3 . 0PLT509 IR.III.A.K10
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 158.) With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliners vortices?
A) The winds will push the vortices southeast of your takeoff path.
B) The up wind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
C) The down wind vortex will rapidly dissipate.
—B
FAA-H-8083-25B Pilots Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge Figure 5-15. When the vortices of larger aircraft sink close to the ground (within 100 to 200 feet), they tend to move laterally over the ground at a speed of 2 or 3 knots (top). A crosswind will decrease the lateral movement of the upwind vortex and increase the movement of the downwind vortex. Thus a light wind with a cross runway component of 1 to 5 knots could result in the upwind vortex remaining in the touchdown zone for a period of time and hasten the drift of the downwind vortex toward another runway (bottom). If the wind is at 330° and just a slight crosswind, the vortices will be pushed over Runway 4. The up wind vortex my still be over the runway when you take off.

4 . 0PLT170 IR.III.A.K8
While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when
A) ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
B) average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.
C) groundspeed changes by 10 MPH or more.
—B
AIM 5−1−12. Change in Flight Plan In addition to altitude or flight level, destination and/or route changes, increasing or decreasing the speed of an aircraft constitutes a change in a flight plan. Therefore, at any time the average true airspeed at cruising altitude between reporting points varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus 5 percent, or 10 knots, whichever is greater, ATC should be advised. See Required ATC Reports for details.

5 . 0PLT224 IR.I.C.K7
You may cancel an IFR flight plan
A) at any time as long as you advise ATC.
B) only in an emergency.
C) if in VMC outside Class A airspace.
—C
AIM 5-1-15 b. An IFR flight plan may be canceled at any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside Class A airspace by pilots stating “CANCEL MY IFR FLIGHT PLAN” to the controller or air/ground station with which they are communicating.

6 . 0PLT141 IR.III.A.K1
While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?
A) continue as directed.
B) advise “unable” and remain clear of clouds.
C) deviate as needed; then rejoin the approach.
—B
AIM 4−3−21. Practice Instrument Approaches It must be clearly understood, however, that even though the controller may be providing separation, pilots on VFR flight plans are required to comply with basic VFR weather minimums… f. Except in an emergency, aircraft cleared to practice instrument approaches must not deviate from the approved procedure until cleared to do so by the controller. The answer is B because in all airspace, VFR pilots must remain clear of clouds and if unable to do so must notify the controller. The answer is only partially correct. Unless you are in Class B airspace (or aboce 10,000′), you must also remain 1,000′ above, 500′ below, and 2,000′ laterally from clouds.

7 . 0PLT382 IR.VI.B.K4
If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?
A) As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.
B) As an RVR of 2,400 feet.
C) As a ground visibility of 1/2SM.
—C
14 CFR §91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR. (h) Comparable values of RVR and ground visibility. has a table showing conversion of RVR to feet. AIM TBL 5−4−1 RVR Value Conversions also has the conversions.

9 . 0PLT292 IR.I.C.K4
If the plan view on an approach chart does not include a procedure turn barb, that means
A) a procedure turn is not authorized.
B) you should fly a teardrop entry.
C) a racetrack-type turn is required.
—A
AIM 5-4-9 4. The absence of the procedure turn barb in the plan view indicates that a procedure turn is not authorized for that procedure.

10 . PLT083 IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 227.) Refer to the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is
A) 7,080 feet MSL.
B) 7,977 feet MSL.
C) 8,000 feet MSL.
—C
On an ILS approach the FAF intercept altitude is is where the glide slope is intercepted. From FIRPI to glide slope intercept the minimum altitude is shown as 8000 on the profile view, so you pick up the glide slope at 8,000′. The non-precision FAF altitude is usually close to the precision value and sometimes they are the same. In this case it is 7,977′.

11 . PLT083 IR.VI.A.K1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Legend 21 and Addendum A, Figure 242.) You have been cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach to LIT. At a ground speed of 105 knots, what are the vertical descent angle and rate of descent on final approach?
A) 2.82 degrees and 524 feet per minute.
B) 3.00 degrees and 557 feet per minute.
C) 4.00 degrees and 550 feet per nauticalmile.
—B
Vertical descent angle is shown on the Plan View. Use the Rate of Descent table in the Legend section of the test booklet to get 557 fpm. (It is found on the back cover of the TPP booklets or in the Legends section of your EFB.)

12 . PLT370 IR.VI.B.K1
You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should
A) turn outbound and complete the procedure turn.
B) continue as assigned and query ATC.
C) turn inbound and join the final approach course.
—B
AIM 5-4-3 (b) After release to approach control, aircraft are vectored to the final approach course (ILS, RNAV, GLS, VOR, ADF, etc.). Radar vectors and altitude or flight levels will be issued as required for spacing and separating aircraft. Therefore, pilots must not deviate from the headings issued by approach control. Aircraft will normally be informed when it is necessary to vector across the final approach course for spacing or other reasons. If approach course crossing is imminent and the pilot has not been informed that the aircraft will be vectored across the final approach course, the pilot should query the controller.

13 . PLT012 IR.I.C.S5
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figures 21, 22, and 24.) If the average fuel consumption is 17.5 GPH, how much fuel would you use on the flight between Grand Junction, CO and Durango, CO?
A) 17 gallons.
B) 20 gallons.
C) 25 gallons.
—A
The flight log already has the time for departure to HERRM and from MANCA to the airport. We just need to find the distance from HERRM to MANCA. It is given on the chart under the airway label as 75 nm. You could also subtract the distance for GCO to HERRM (35 nm) and the distance from the VOR at the end of V187 32 NM (It happens to be Rattlesnake, RSK but that is not shown on the chart excerpt.) from the total distance between the VORs (142 NM) to get 142-32-35=75NM. The true airspeed on the flight plan is 175 kts. So it takes (75 NM/ 175 NM/Hr)*60 = 25.7 minutes. Since we haven’t been given climbout and descent fuel burn, assume 15 gph for each. Total time is 24 + 25.7 + 18.5 = 68.2 minutes. At 15 gph we get 17.054. The closest answer is 17 gallons.

14 . PLT292 IR.III.A.K8
Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?
A) The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds.
B) The controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds.
C) The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.
—C
AIM 5-4-25 5−4−25. Contact Approach a. Pilots operating in accordance with an IFR flight plan, provided they are clear of clouds and have at least 1 mile flight visibility and can reasonably expect to continue to the destination airport in those conditions, may request ATC authorization for a contact approach. b. Controllers may authorize a contact approach provided: 1. The contact approach is specifically requested by the pilot. ATC cannot initiate this approach. Read more about Contact and Visual Approaches.

15 . PLT222 IR.III.A.K8
During a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings, you should contact departure
A) before entering the clouds.
B) when the tower instructs the change.
C) upon reaching traffic pattern altitude.
—B
AIM 5−2−7. Departure Control c. Controllers will inform pilots of the departure control frequencies and, if appropriate, the transponder code before takeoff. Pilots must ensure their transponder is adjusted to the “on” or normal operating position as soon as practical and remain on during all operations unless otherwise requested to change to “standby” by ATC. Pilots should not change to the departure control frequency until requested.

16 . PLT406 IR.VI.B.K4
A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?
A) The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach.
B) The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glideslope in place of the electronic glideslope.
C) The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot`s discretion.
—B
14 CFR §91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR. … no pilot may operate an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless… at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: — (vi) The visual approach slope indicator.

17 . PLT202 IR.II.B.K2c
The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at
A) high altitudes far from the VORTAC.
B) high altitudes close to the VORTAC.
C) low altitudes far from the VORTAC.
—B
FAA-H-8083-25B Pilots Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge 16-27 DME display shows the slant range distance to or from the VORTAC. Slant range distance is the direct distance between the aircraft and the VORTAC and is therefore affected by aircraft altitude. (Station passage directly over a VORTAC from an altitude of 6,076 feet AGL would show approximately 1.0 NM on the DME.)

18 . PLT322 IR.I.C.K9
You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between navaids should be
A) 40 NM.
B) 70 NM.
C) 80 NM.
—C
AIM 1-1-8 TBL 1-1-1 Low VORs have a range of 40 NM up to 18,000′ and High VORs have a range of 100 NM from 14,500 up to 60,000′. Since the question doesn’t specify which type of VOR you are using, assume the worst case distance of 40 NM for each or 80 NM between them.

19 . PLT354 IR.VI.A.K3
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot should
A) continue the approach, expecting to recapture the satellites before reaching the FAF.
B) use a navigation or approach system other than GPS for an approach.
C) continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured.
—B
AIM 1-1-18 (3) Procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur. In situations where RAIM is predicted to be unavailable, the flight must rely on other approved navigation equipment, re-route to where RAIM is available, delay departure, or cancel the flight. AIM 1-1-22 3) (3) If a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP), the approach should not be completed since GPS no longer provides the required integrity. (4) If the receiver does not sequence into the approach mode or a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the FAWP, the pilot must not initiate the approach or descend, but instead proceed to the missed approach waypoint ( MAWP) via the FAWP, perform a missed approach, and contact ATC as soon as practical. [The question asks what you should do if RAIM is not available prior to beginning the approach, so B is correct.]

20 . PLT322 IR.II.B.K2b
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?
A) The first movement of the CDI as the airplane enters the zone of confusion.
B) The moment the TO FROM indicator becomes blank.
C) The first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator.
—C
AIM 1-1-3 …the pilot may occasionally observe a brief course needle oscillation, similar to the indication of “approaching station.” Pilots flying over unfamiliar routes are cautioned to be on the alert for these vagaries, and in particular, to use the “to/from” indicator to determine positive station passage.

21 . PLT300 IR.II.B.K2b
When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?
A) Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.
B) Plus or minus 4° of the designated radial.
C) Plus 6° or minus 4° of the designated radial.
—A
14 CFR §91.171 VOR equipment check for IFR operations. (3) If neither a test signal nor a designated checkpoint on the surface is available, use an airborne checkpoint designated by the Administrator or, outside the United States, by an appropriate authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 6 degrees);

23 . PLT058 IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 87.) What is indicated by the localizer course symbol at Jefferson County Airport?
A) A published LDA localizer course with voice capability.
B) A published SDF localizer course with back course capabilities.
C) A published ILS localizer course which has an additional navigation function.
—C
Refer to the Legend on the IFR Low Altitude Charts. An ILS symbol refers to an “ILS Localizer Course with additional navigation functions”

24 . PLT058 IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 91.) When flying a northbound IFR flight on V257, what is the minimum crossing altitude at DBS VORTAC?
A) 7,500 feet.
B) 8,600 feet.
C) 11,100 feet.
—B
The flag with an X indicates that the intersection (or VOR) has a minimum crossing altitude. The MCA is often displayed offset from the fix because of space considerations, but in this case it is within the compass rose. The first line says V21-257 8600N.

25 . PLT083 IR.V.B.K9
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 230.) The minimum safe altitude (MSA) for the VOR/DME or GPS-A at 7D3 is geographically centered on what position?
A) DEANI intersection.
B) WHITE CLOUD VOR/DME.
C) Baldwin Municipal Airport.
—B
The MSA symbol is described in the Instrument Approach Procedures Legend. In this case it says MSA HIC 25 NM and is at 2800′ MSL. HIC is the abbreviation for White Cloud VOR/DME.

26 . PLT058 IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 24.) While passing near the CORTEZ VOR, southbound on V187, contact is lost with Denver Center. You should attempt to reestablish contact with Denver Center on
A) 133.425 MHz.
B) 122.1 MHz and receive on 108.4MHz.
C) 122.35 MHz.
—A
Refer to the Legend on the IFR Low Altitude Charts to see that the postage stamp like symbol are ARTCC Remotes sites with discrete VHR and UHF frequencies. In this case, the frequency is 133.425.

27 . PLT100 IR.I.C.K4
Military training routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet are depicted on
A) IFR Planning Charts.
B) IFR Low Altitude En Route Charts.
C) IFR High Altitude En Route Charts.
—B
AIM 3-5-2 2. Route charting. (a) IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart. This chart will depict all IR routes and all VR routes that accommodate operations above 1,500 feet AGL. (b) VFR Sectional Aeronautical Charts. These charts will depict military training activities such as IR, VR, MOA, Restricted Area, Warning Area, and Alert Area information. c. Generally, MTRs are established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. [So they wouldn’t appear on IFR High Charts]

28 . PLT058 IR.I.C.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 53.) What is indicated by the inverse `H` symbol in the radio aids to navigation box for SAN MARCUS VORTAC?
A) VOR with TACAN compatible DME.
B) The availability of HIWAS.
C) The VOR has a high altitude SSV Class Designator.
—B
Refer to the Legend on the IFR Low Altitude Charts. A white H in a black circle refers to HIWAS—Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service

34 . PLT317 IR.I.B.R5
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 13.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?
A) Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.
B) Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.
C) Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.
—B
AIM 7−1−25. Microbursts The impact of a microburst on aircraft which have the unfortunate
experience of penetrating one is characterized in FIG 7−1−11. The aircraft may encounter a headwind (performance increasing) followed by a downdraft and tailwind (both performance decreasing), possibly resulting in terrain impact.

35 . PLT291 IR.I.B.K1
Area forecasts generally include a forecast period of 18 hours and cover a geographical
A) terminal area.
B) area less than 3,000 square miles.
C) area the size of several states.
—C
AIM 7-1-5 Area Forecast (FA) areas described in FIG 7−1−2 and FIG 7−1−3. [Each area covers several states. There are 6 areas in the CONUS so on average they cover 6 states with 3 as the minimum.] SIGMETs and AIRMETs are considered “widespread” because they must be either affecting or be forecasted to affect an area of at least 3,000 square miles at any one time.

36 . PLT288 IR.I.B.K1
Which weather product is a concise statement of the expected weather for an airport`s runway complex?
A) Area Forecast (FA).
B) Weather Depiction Charts.
C) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).
—C
AC 00-45H 5.11 Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF). A TAF is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation for a specified time period within 5 sm of the center of the airport’s runway complex (terminal).

37 . PLT284 IR.I.B.S1
Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB) for OKC at 39,000 feet.
FT 3000 9000 12000 24000 39000
OKC 9900 2018+00 2130-06 2361-30 830558
A) Wind 130° at 50 knots, temperature -58 °C.
B) Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58° C.
C) Wind 330° at 205 knots, temperature -58° C.
—B
AC 00-45H 5.13.1.2.2 Wind direction is indicated in tens of degrees (two digits) with reference to true north and wind speed is given in knots (two digits). Light and variable wind or wind speeds of less than 5 kts are expressed by 9900. Forecast wind speeds of 100 through 199 kts are indicated by subtracting 100 from the speed and adding 50 to the coded direction. For example, a forecast of 250 degrees, 145 kts, is encoded as 7545. Forecast wind speeds of 200 kts or greater are indicated as a forecast speed of 199 kts. For example, 7799 is decoded as 270 degrees at 199 kts or greater.… Temperature is indicated in degrees Celsius (two digits) and is preceded by the appropriate algebraic sign for the levels from 6,000 through 24,000 ft. Above 24,000 ft, the sign is omitted since temperatures are always negative at those altitudes. In this case subtract 50 from the direction to get 33 or 330° and add 100 to speed to get 105 kts, temperature is minus 58 since the 39000 level is above 23,000′.

38 . PLT288 IR.I.B.S1
Use the TAF to determine the wind shear forecast.
TAF KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM –RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT
TEMPO 1719 1/2SM –RA FG
FM1930 09012KT 1SM –DZ BR VV003
BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=
A) Wind shear at 500 feet MSL from 270° at 50 KT.
B) Wind shear at 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
C) Wind shear from the surface to 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
—C
AC 00-45H 5.11.2.10 Non-Convective Low-Level Wind Shear (LLWS) Group (WShwshwshws/dddffKT). Forecasts of LLWS in the TAF refer only to Non-Convective LLWS from the surface up to and including 2,000 ft AGL. LLWS is always assumed to be present in Convective activity. [They give an example WS020/27055KT] the indicator WS is followed by a three-digit number that is the top of the wind shear layer. LLWS is forecast to be present from the surface to this level.

AIM 7-1-29 Key To Terminal Aerodrome Forecast WS010/31022KT In U.S.TAF, non-convective low-level (≤ 2,000ft) WindShear; 3-digit height (hundreds of ft); “/”; 3-digit wind direction and 2-3 digit wind speed above the indicated height, and unit, KT.

AIM 7-1-30 Wind shear is the forecast of nonconvective low level winds (up to 2,000 feet). The forecast includes the letters “WS” followed by the height of the wind shear, the wind direction and wind speed at the indicated height and the ending letters “KT” (knots). Height is given in hundreds of feet (AGL) up to and including 2,000 feet. Wind shear is encoded with the contraction “WS,” followed by a three−digit height, slant character “/,” and winds at the height indicated in the same format as surface winds. The wind shear element is omitted if not expected to occur. WS010/18040KT − “LOW LEVEL WIND SHEAR AT ONE THOUSAND, WIND ONE EIGHT ZERO AT FOUR ZERO”

39 . PLT059 IR.I.B.S1
Interpret the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA
METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42
A) The wind is variable from 290° to 360.
B) Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31.
C) Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.
—C
AC 00-45H 3.1.5.13.11 Beginning and Ending of Precipitation. At designated stations, the beginning and ending times of precipitation are coded in the following format: the type of precipitation, followed by either a B for beginning or an E for ending, and the time of occurrence. No spaces are coded between the elements.

40 . PLT294 IR.I.B.K1
If you encounter in-flight icing and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the official reportable icing values that you are expected to use?
A) Light, moderate, severe, extreme.
B) Trace, light, moderate, severe.
C) Few, light, moderate, severe.
—B
AIM 7−1−20. PIREPs Relating to Airframe Icing Trace, Light, Moderate, Severe

41 . PLT068 IR.I.B.S1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 7.) Interpret the weather conditions depicted within the area indicated by arrow F?
A) 2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 540.
B) 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51,000 feet MSL.
C) Occasional embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 25,000 feet with tops to 48,000 feet.
—C
The legend on the chart says that it is for FL 250-600 so the XXX means that the bases are below the chart. The tops are at FL480. OCNL EMBD CB means occasional embedded cumulonimbus. C isn’t exactly correct, but is probably what they want.

46 . PLT281 IR.III.A.K1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 162.) You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates
A) you are on the centerline for your assigned runway.
B) you are too low on the approach.
C) you have lined up with the wrong runway.
—C
Refer to the airport diagram legend in the Chart Supplement. The code CL indicates that the runway has centerline lighting. RWY 16R-34L has the code, RWY 16L-34R does not. You can also see runway centerline lights in the airport sketch for RWY 16R-34L and not on RWY 16L-34R.

52 . PLT147 IR.VI.E.K4
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 136.) An `on glidepath` indication is
A) 8.
B) 10.
C) 11.
—B
AIM FIG 2−1−5 Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) The first two are above the glide path, the middle is on the glidepath, and the last two are below the glidepath.

59 . PLT083 IR.VI.A.K1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 187.) When conducting a missed approach from the RNAV (GPS) X RWY 28L approach at PDX, what is the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering?
A) 2,100 feet MSL.
B) 4,000 feet MSL.
C) 5,800 feet MSL.
—C
The MSA symbol is described in the Instrument Approach Procedures Legend. In this case it says MSA RWY28L 25 NM and is at 5800′ MSL.

60 . PLT128 IR.II.A.R3
A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is
A) keeping the autopilot engaged while monitoring the system.
B) periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane.
C) periodically disengaging and immediately reengaging the altitude hold function.
—B
AC 91-74B Flight in Icing Conditions Pilots may consider periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane when operating in icing conditions. FAA H 8083-15 Airplane Flying Handbook Unless otherwise recommended in the AFM/POH, the autopilot should not be used in icing conditions. Continuous use of the autopilot masks trim and handling changes that occur with ice accumulation. Without this control feedback, the pilot may not be aware of ice accumulation building to hazardous levels. The autopilot suddenly disconnects when it reaches design limits, and the pilot may find the airplane has assumed unsatisfactory handling characteristics.

One of the sample questions for the Instrument Rating is:
A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is
  A) keeping the autopilot engaged while monitoring the system.
  B) periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane.
  C) periodically disengaging and immediately reengaging the altitude hold function.

This is an example of Knowledge Test questions where none of the answers is satisfactory. What has been left out is whether the aircraft is certified for known ice, the degree of icing, and whether it is day or night. I searched through FAA publications to see what they have to say about icing and autopilot use and none of the documents clearly support any of the answers. I’ve quoted the relevant passages below but my best guess is that the answer to the question is B.

The autopilot can reduce the workload of a pilot, but in icing conditions, it can mask the effects of icing until it can no longer cope with them and then it disengages. When this happens, the pilot can be caught off guard with an airplane in an extreme nose-up trim condition. A stall-spin condition can easily develop. Using the autopilot to level the wings and give headings will reduce the pilot’s workload without causing inadvertent nose high attitude and potential stall conditions. By controlling the pitch manually, the pilot will be able to detect decreased performance of the aircraft and react accordingly.

AC 60-22 Aeronautical Decision Making
3. CONVENTIONAL DECISION MAKING.
a. In conventional decision making, the need for a decision is triggered by recognition that something has changed or an expected change did not occur. Recognition of the change, or non-change, in the situation is a vital step in any decision making process. Not noticing the change in the situation can lead directly to a mishap. The change indicates that an appropriate response or action is necessary in order to modify the situation (or, at least, one of the elements that comprise it) and bring about a desired new situation. Therefore, situational awareness is the key to successful and safe decision making.

FAA-H-8083-9A Aviation Instructor’s Handbook
Highly reliable automation has been shown to induce overconfidence and complacency. This can result in a pilot following the instructions of the automation even when common sense suggests otherwise. If the pilot assumes the autopilot is doing its job, he or she does not crosscheck the instruments or the aircraft’s position frequently. If the autopilot fails, the pilot may not be mentally prepared to fly the aircraft manually

AC 91-74B Flight In Icing Conditions
5-6. TAKEOFF AND CLIMBOUT
b. Ice Accumulation. Airplanes are vulnerable to ice accumulation during the initial climbout in icing conditions because lower speeds often translate into a higher Angle of Attack (AOA). This exposes the underside of the airplane and its wings to the icing conditions and allows ice to accumulate further aft than it would in cruise flight. At rotation and climbout, some aircraft occasionally are susceptible to stall warning horn activation in icing. Pilot awareness of this hazard in his or her particular aircraft is important to maintain situational awareness.

c. Vigilance. Consequently, any ice that forms may be out of the pilot’s view and go undetected. Extreme vigilance should be exercised while climbing with the autopilot engaged. Climbing in Vertical Speed (VS) mode in icing conditions is highly discouraged.

d. Monitor Airspeed. When climbing with the autopilot engaged in the vertical speed mode, ice accretion will result in a loss of climb performance. If the vertical speed is not reduced, the autopilot will maintain the rate until stall. It is critical that the pilot monitor airspeed to assure that the aircraft maintains at least the minimum flight speed for the configuration and environmental conditions.

FAA H 8083-15 Airplane Flying Handbook
Unless otherwise recommended in the AFM/POH, the autopilot should not be used in icing conditions. Continuous use of the autopilot masks trim and handling changes that occur with ice accumulation. Without this control feedback, the pilot may not be aware of ice accumulation building to hazardous levels. The autopilot suddenly disconnects when it reaches design limits, and the pilot may find the airplane has assumed unsatisfactory handling characteristics.

AC 61-67C Stall and Spin Awareness
102 a In some icing conditions there are adverse changes to the stall speed, stall characteristics, performance, and handling characteristics of the airplane. These adverse changes are potentially hazardous for several reasons. First, aerodynamic stall may occur with little or none of the usual cues in advance of the stall or at the occurrence of stall. These cues include airframe or control surface buffet, reduced control effectiveness, and activation of the stall warning horn, stick shaker, and stick pusher. Next, because of high drag on unprotected surfaces and residual ice on protected surfaces, there may be insufficient power or thrust to increase speed while holding constant altitude to reduce the AOA. Finally, post stall recovery of a contaminated airplane may be complicated by gross changes in control effectiveness, airplane response characteristics, and abnormal control forces. As a result of these factors, large losses in altitude can occur during recovery.

102 c. Further complications involve use of the autopilot. The autopilot may apply control inputs that will mask detection of some of these tactile cues by the pilot or attempt to control the airplane in the stall. Sudden autopilot self-disconnect with control surfaces trimmed into extreme positions or with controls trimmed into uncoordinated flight will complicate post stall recovery and may lead to a spin or spiral.

No Mention Of Autopilot Use In Icing
AIM
FAA_H_8083-15B Instrument Flying Handbook 2012
FAA-H-8083-16 Instrument Procedures Handbook
FAA-H-8083-25B Pilots Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

This is the third skill of the Fundamentals Skills of Instrument Flying as found in the Instrument Flying Handbook. The attitude indicator is used to control the movement of the airplane, followed by cross-check, interpretation, and then control again.

Attitude Control
Proper control of aircraft attitude is the result of proper use of the attitude indicator, knowledge of when to change the attitude then smoothly changing the attitude a precise amount. The attitude reference provides an immediate, direct, and corresponding indication of any change in aircraft pitch or bank attitude.

Pitch Control
Changing the “pitch attitude” of the miniature aircraft or fuselage dot by precise amounts in relation to the horizon makes pitch changes. These changes are measured in degrees, or fractions thereof, or bar widths depending upon the type of attitude reference. The amount of deviation from the desired performance determines the magnitude of the correction.

Bank Control
Bank changes are made by changing the “bank attitude” or bank pointers by precise amounts in relation to the bank scale. The bank scale is normally graduated at 0°, 10°, 20°, 30°, 60°, and 90° and is located at the top or bottom of the attitude reference. Bank angle use normally approximates the degrees to turn, not to exceed 30°.

Power Control
Proper power control results from the ability to smoothly establish or maintain desired airspeeds in coordination with attitude changes. Power changes are made by throttle adjustments and reference to the power indicators. Power indicators are not affected by such factors as turbulence, improper trim, or inadvertent control pressures. Therefore, in most aircraft little attention is required to ensure the power setting remains constant.

There are a couple of questions on this topic on the knowledge test, so getting the terminology right can come in handy. From the Instrument Flying Handbook:

During attitude instrument training, two fundamental flight skills must be developed. They are instrument cross-check and instrument interpretation, both resulting in positive aircraft control. Although these skills are learned separately and in deliberate sequence, a measure of proficiency in precision flying is the ability to integrate these skills into unified, smooth, positive control responses to maintain any prescribed flightpath.

Instrument Cross Check
Cross-checking is the continuous and logical observation of instruments for attitude and performance information.…Although no specific method of cross-checking is recommended, those instruments that give the best information for controlling the aircraft in any given maneuver should be used. The important instruments are the ones that give the most pertinent information for any particular phase of the maneuver. These are… usually the instruments that should be held at a constant indication. The remaining instruments should help maintain the important instruments at the desired indications.

Selected Radial Cross-Check
When the selected radial cross-check is used, a pilot spends 80 to 90 percent of flight time looking at the attitude indicator, taking only quick glances at the other flight instruments… With this method, the pilot’s eyes never travel directly between the flight instruments but move by way of the attitude indicator.

Inverted-V Cross-Check
In the inverted-V cross-check, the pilot scans from the attitude indicator down to the turn coordinator, up to the attitude indicator, down to the VSI, and back up to the attitude indicator.

Rectangular Cross-Check
In the rectangular cross-check, the pilot scans across the top three instruments (airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and altimeter), and then drops down to scan the bottom three instruments (VSI, heading indicator, and turn instrument).

Common Cross-Check Errors
Fixation, omission, and emphasis on a single instrument, instead of on the combination of instruments necessary for attitude information.

Instrument Interpretation
The second fundamental skill… begins by understanding each instrument’s construction and operating principles. Then, this knowledge must be applied to the performance of the aircraft being flown, the particular maneuvers to be executed, the cross-check and control techniques applicable to that aircraft, and the flight conditions.

Airplane Control
For each maneuver, learn what performance to expect and the combination of instruments to be interpreted in order to control aircraft attitude during the maneuver. This topic deserves an entire post, Aircraft Control During Instrument Flight

The Importance of the Instrument Cross Check
SW Aviator
goes into detail about the importance of the cross-check for detecting failed instruments: The instrument crosscheck is an important backup measure that prevents a spatial-disorientation/unusual-attitude disaster by increasing the chance of early recognition of a failed instrument. Its importance only becomes apparent when an instrument actually fails.

The failures that an instrument crosscheck is designed to detect cannot be demonstrated in flight. Simulators and computer training devices offer about the only opportunity to realistically train for gradual and/or unexpected instrument failures. Puckering liability issues dictate against installing a valve that can block the vacuum lines to simulate vacuum failure, and usually there are no switches to surreptitiously flick to disable an electric instrument. Yet the importance of mastering the transition is apparent in several studies that have shown that 1) it takes a significant amount of time, measured in minutes, for pilots just to recognize an instrument failure, and that 2) this is plenty time to get into real trouble. Coping with a failed instrument by using a partial-panel scan is an entirely different problem from recognizing the failure: the same pilots flew well enough in partial-panel mode when the instrument failure was known, suggesting that it is detection of the failure that is confusing, and that training for it is difficult, deficient, or both.

Attitude Instrument Flying Video

Knowledge Test Questions
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?
Cross-check, emphasis, and aircraft control.

What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Aircraft control.

What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument cross-check.

I recently updated the time tracking spreadsheet from my logbook and noticed that I have a lot of flights with “Birthday Present” or “Christmas Present” in the remarks section. My parents and in-laws know that the only thing I ever want is gas money.

Here’s the most recent. Flying DME arcs around a VOR using ForeFlight. Still need to work on them.

We are taught to check fuel vent lines for insect nests or other debris. You should also check the caps to be sure they are vented properly and tight. Not all caps are vented, for example all Comanche gas caps are non-vented. An Aztec cap, which is vented, looks like a Comanche cap and will fit a Comanche, so you need to be careful when replacing caps.

Fuel Caps
“Monarch Premium Caps are a stainless steel umbrella cap with a ratchetting mechanism that releases and “clicks” when the cap is tightened correctly. They have a dual spring-loaded vent for both pressure and vacuum. This is a secondary vent in case the primary vent gets obstructed.”

Check the vents, if your cap has them, and pay special attention to the gasket and any rubber parts. I lost part of the umbrella gasket on mine which meant that it wasn’t operating properly.

Apple Valley Crash
Postcrash inspection of the engine revealed no discrepancies. Inspection of the fuel system revealed that the left auxiliary fuel cell vent lines were plugged by insects and mud at two different internal locations.

Fuel Vent Lines
There is an abandoned jet next to my Cherokee and wasps have taken up residence. I have found wasps in my engine compartment and in the rudder, so I am extra careful when pre-flighting to make sure that they have not decided to make nests in the fuel vent lines.

Fuel cell vents have a check valve in them to prevent water and contaminants from getting into the fuel cell. The Cessna 210 vent line has a pinhole on the bottom. This allows moisture to drain and helps avoid having ice clog the line.

Cessna 210 Fuel Vent Line—One on each wing.

Piper Cherokee Fuel Vent Line—One on each wing.

Cessna 182 Fuel Vent Line—One for the whole system.

Peter B. Hi11 uses old tennis balls as vent covers on his Cherokee. After a small slit with knife or razor blade, one will fit perfectly over the pitot sword. The other two, after the puncture of a small hole, will fit snugly over the fuel tank vent overflow pipes,prevent insect blockage, and subsequent fuel starvation (which has been the sad fate of several Cherokees over the years).

This is the fuel vent system from the Cherokee parts manual. Notice how the vent line starts at the top of the fuel cell and vents out the bottom of the wing. You can also see the umbrella vent in the fuel cap.

I just ran across this FAA publication investigating accidents due to mechanical issues from 1984 to 2004.

16,213 accidents/incidents (26%) are classified with an ATA code as the causal factor. An ATA code indicates a mechanical malfunction of the aircraft’s systems. The remaining accidents/incidents were attributable to non-mechanical factors, including pilot error, human factor related problems, and improper procedures.

Just the list of definitions is informative.

Improper Operation of Brake/Flight Control on Ground:
Loss of directional ground control due to improper operation of brake or flight controls. Typical examples are: losing directional control during landing, improper use of brake system, and losing directional control during take-off.
Selected Unsuitable Terrain: Landing on unimproved areas, landing on unknown terrain condition, and veering off runway onto unimproved areas.

Unsafe Acts by Third Party:
Unauthorized ground vehicles colliding with aircraft, aircraft to aircraft collision during ground operation, maintenance induced problems, and unauthorized personnel present during ground operations.

Inadequate Preflight Inspection of Aircraft:
Failure to remove aircraft tie downs, door not latched on take-off, improper setting of seat stops prior to take-off, fuel cap not properly installed, failure to remove control locks prior to take-off, and improper setting of control trim prior to take-off.

Failure to Avoid Objects or Obstructions:
During ground or air operations such as striking towers, other aircraft on ground, power lines, ground support equipment, trees, and wild life, such as deer, on the ground.

Poor Preflight Plan/Aircraft Performance:
Exceeded ability of aircraft to climb during towing flight, operation in excessive wind or gust components, operation off of improper runway surface for aircraft type, and exceeded density altitude limit of aircraft type.

Inadvertently Retracting Landing Gear:
Pilot accidentally retracted gear, selected gear up instead of flaps up.

Landing Gear Actuator:
Failure of the landing gear actuator system including failure of down lock system, and failure of actuator motor/transmission.

Landing Gear Strut/Axle/Truck:
Failure of the strut assembly, trunnion area including bearings, torque link system, and landing gear attachment brackets/hardware.

Exceed Load Design:
Loss of aircraft integrity caused by exceeding design loads due to over speed, over weight, acrobatic flight in non-rated aircraft, and down/up drafts.
Miscellaneous Pilot Unsafe Acts: Pilot distraction induced accident/incident such landing on wrong runway or taxiway, take off without Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearance, flying too low and striking trees, other aircraft, etc., and not securing gas or oil caps resulting in loss of fuel/oil.

Observations
Landing gear issues were a primary cause for accidents of both part 91 single and multiple engine accidents. Failure of the retraction/extension system along with failure to extend the gear accounted for 12% of all part 91 accidents.

Improper operation of brakes/flight control on ground also was a leading causal factor of part 91 accidents. 6,108 events (11%) of part 91 accidents were due to improper operation of brake/flight control during ground operations.

The leading causal factor for both Cessna and Piper aircraft was improper operation of brake/flight control during ground operations. The leading causal factor for Beechcraft was failure to extend the landing gear.

We are taught to check that the controls are free and correct on every flight. Some pilots skip that step.

Airplane Misrigging Lessons Learned From a Close Call
What needs to be added to post-maintenance checklists is to check the operation of trim if any maintenance is done on the controls.

The NTSB found that the crash of a Gulfstream in Massachusetts was due to the pilot’s taking off with the gust lock engaged.

The airplane was equipped with a mechanical gust lock system, which could be utilized to lock the ailerons and rudder in the neutral position, and the elevator in the down position to protect the control surfaces from wind gusts while parked. A mechanical interlock was incorporated in the gust lock handle mechanism to restrict the movement of the throttle levers to a minimal amount (6-percent) when the gust lock handle was engaged.

The FDR data revealed the elevator control surface position during the taxi and takeoff was consistent with its position if the gust lock was engaged. The gust lock handle, located on the right side of the control pedestal, was found in the forward (OFF) position, and the elevator gust lock latch was found not engaged.

Fatal plane crash – DH4 Caribou with controls locked
Two test pilots on board, and no one checked the controls free and clear before starting t/o roll. It hurts to watch this video, but it’s a dramatic reminder that there really are good reasons to do a thorough preflight and to make sure the controls are free.

Control lock contributes to Cessna 172 crash
The pilot stated that in preparation for a night flight from Portsmouth, N.H., he flew earlier that same evening. He inspected the Cessna 172S and noted the control lock was not installed in the control column. While searching for the control lock he located a “straight pin” in a seatback pocket and installed it. … He taxied to the run-up area where he performed the before takeoff checklist, but did not check that the flight controls were free and clear for fear of having his tablet knocked off the yoke mount.

Early investigation of fatal crash points to control lock issue
Although the report makes no specific finding as to the cause of the crash, it indicates the control lock pin may not have been removed from the cockpit control column prior to takeoff.

We haven’t had a FAAST presentation in our town for a couple of years and I was looking forward to attending the recent on on loss of control. Unfortunately, it turned out to be one of the worst presentations I’ve ever attended. The presenter was fairly well-spoken, but the entire presentation consisted of reading slides that had been prepared by the FAA. The slides themselves had tons of text on them—a big no-no if you want to hold your audiences attention. But what’s worse is that I think the first time he had ever seen the slides was when he was standing in front of the room reading them. There were a couple of interesting slides, but most of them were things that pilots don’t really care about. Here’s what I would have talked about…

Accident Statistics

They started off with a slide taken from the 2010 Nall Report—published by the AOPA Air Safety Foundation. Reports dating back to 1996 can be found on their website. The most recent 2011 Report below has similar statistics.

The take-away from these slides is that accidents happen to all pilots and the lethality is around 20%. In other words, about 20% of all accidents result in at least one fatality. The exception is student pilots, who—except for the long cross-country—are less likely to stray far from their home field, are presumably receiving closer scrutiny from their CFI, and hence are less likely to fly into adverse weather.

It’s hard to draw any other conclusions from this slide because it doesn’t show the number of pilots in each catagory or the number of hours flown. AOPA has the statistics on the number of pilots and private pilots make up 220,008 our of 627,588 or 35% of total pilots. The 51% of total accidents is much higher than the pilot population.

When we look at accident rates, some interesting information jumps out. There are 63 accidents per million hours for non-commercial operations (the chart reports it as 6.3 per 100,000 hours) and 2.97 per 100,000 hours for commercial operations. This is a significant difference.

The presentation mentioned three kinds of behavior that led to the accidents. First, doing the right thing poorly. Second, doing the wrong thing, and third, ignoring the FARs and common sense.

There are three Preliminary NTSB accident reports for recent high-profile accidents that are on point for Loss of Control that private pilots can learn from. The reports don’t contain much information but the NTSB member briefings have some interesting details.

The first is the Asiana 777 that landed short at KSFO. The second is the collapsed nose gear at KLGA, and the third is the UPS Airbus A300 that landed short in Birmingham (KBHM).

In the Asiana accident the NTSB found that (among a whole list of things) Adherence of Asiana pilots to standard operating procedures (SOP) regarding callouts. The flight crew did not consistently adhere to Asiana’s SOPs involving selections and callouts pertaining to the autoflight system’s mode control panel. This lack of adherence is likely the reason that the PF did not call out “flight level change” when he selected FLCH SPD. As a result, and because the PM’s attention was likely on changing the flap setting at that time, the PM did not notice that FLCH SPD was engaged.

In the LaGuardia accident, “The accident occurred at 5:45 p.m. after the twin-engine jet’s nose landing gear collapsed rearward and upward into the fuselage, damaging the electronics bay, which houses avionics and other equipment. The exterior of the airplane was also damaged from sliding 2,175 feet on its nose along Runway 4 before coming to rest, off to the right side of the runway.” There were no mechanical anomalies or malfunctions. “The weather in the New York area caused the accident flight to enter a holding pattern for about 15 minutes. The crew reported that they saw the airport from about 5-10 miles out and that the airplane was on speed, course and glideslope down to about 200-400 feet. The crew reported that below 1,000 feet, the tailwind was about 11 knots. They also reported that the wind on the runway was a headwind of about 11 knots. SWA 345 proceeded on the approach when at a point below 400 feet, there was an exchange of control of the airplane and the captain became the flying pilot and made the landing. The jetliner touched down on the runway nose first followed by the collapse of the nose gear; the airplane was substantially damaged.”

Collapsed nosegear accidents are fairly common as a quick search shows.

In the preliminary investigation of the Birmingham crash. The briefing by the NTSB member indicated that the control surfaces and and engines were working properly. The plane was on autopilot and auto-throttle up until the time data recording stopped. The PAPI was operational. The runway that they normally used was closed.
BHM 08/034 BHM RWY 6/24 CLSD WEF 1308140900-1308141000

The NTSB report indicated that communications between dispatch and the crew and among the crew were major factors in the crash.

Clear communications. This investigation identified several areas in which communication was lacking both before and during the flight, which played a role in the development of the accident scenario.

– Dispatcher and flight crew. Before departure, the dispatcher and the flight crew did not verbally communicate with each other even though dispatchers and pilots share equal responsibility for the safety of the flight.

Between flight crewmembers. During the flight, the captain did not rebrief the approach after he switched the autopilot from the profile to the vertical speed mode. Therefore, the first officer was initially unaware of the change and had to seek out information on the type of approach being flown.

The National Transportation Safety Board determines that the probable cause of this accident was the flight crew’s continuation of an unstabilized approach and their failure to monitor the aircraft’s altitude during the approach, which led to an inadvertent descent below the minimum approach altitude and subsequently into terrain.

Here are some good examples of various ways to get clearance from uncontrolled airports:
On the initial contact you need to let them know who your are, where you are, that you want to pick up your IFR clearance, and when you’ll be ready to go. Not much different than picking up a clearance at a towered airport.

Copying IFR Clearances
Just to get you started, here’s Garry Wing explaining how to copy a clearance.

Most of Steveo’s videos start with picking up a clearance. Here he is departing VFR, then picking up IFR clearance in the air. The pickup starts at 3:30 but he talks through departing an uncontrolled field so it’s worth listening to.

Picking up IFR clearance on the ground from KAUN through the phone

Picking up IFR clearance on the ground using the radio to phone patch through an RCO:

He explains the phone patch clearance at 14m40.

Picking Up Your IFR Clearance From An Uncontrolled Airport
This is an example of how not to pick up your clearance at an uncontrolled airport. The student IFR pilot gets the mechanics of the call right but makes a couple of mistakes. First, he should be familiar with the waypoints that are likely for his clearance. After leaving the airport and entering controlled airspace, you know that you are going to be cleared to a waypoint or VOR on the chart. So be prepared and know how they are spelled. Second, he accepts a clearance for takeoff in five minutes. The readback takes three minutes and there is no way he can get in the plane, do a runup, and take off in two minutes. The clearance void time means that if you are not airborne at that time, your clearance is void. He should never have taken off.

Hard IFR from Auburn KAUN to Oakland KOAK
Here’s how you make a phone call to pick up your clearance. He has a local number to call to get clearance and calls back when he is ready to go. His void time is also five minutes and he is off before that. The clearance starts at 100 seconds in, but you might want to watch the first part where he talks about the weather.

He flies out of this airport all the time, so he knows the local number. If you don’t know it you can call 1-800-WXBRIEF just like you do to get a briefing and ask for your clearance.

Just finished the annual on the Cherokee yesterday. About 40 hours of my labor over three and a half days. The only thing that needed fixed was a loose alternator belt. It was the cheapest, quickest annual I’ve ever had. One thing that made it go faster was that I added a cordless screwdriver to my tool bag. Makes it way faster to remove and replace inspection panels—not counting the six hours I spent researching it.

In addition to my regular tool bag, I took a small can of GoJo to clean the belly, a dozen vinyl gloves, and a handful of old wash cloths I used green Scotch Brite, the red heavy duty Scotch Brite, and a brass brush for corrosion. While it was in the hangar and out of the sun, I waxed it. I like Meguiars liquid wax better than paste waxes. It doesn’t seem to get caught in seams as much.

A can of mineral spirits comes in handy as a degreaser. I buy the gallon at the same place that I get my oil. They’ll pump a couple of gallons into a 5-gallon paint bucket for much less than the hardware store charges.

I used most of a small can of Tri-Flo to lube the hinges, yoke, cables, and pulley bolts. I used ACF-50 for the throttle and mixture cables in the engine compartment. Also for spraying on corrosion that I cleaned up in the interior.

Nothing was stuck this time, but the best thing for loosening bolts is Kroil. I can only find it at NAPA.

On my Cherokee we use Aeroshell #5 for greasing the fittings on the wheels and for the wheel bearings. We also use it for chains in the flap and the pulley system for the trim.

The only tools that you absolutely must have (your mechanic will have the rest) are a socket set, wrench set, several straight picks, LED flashlight, and an apron.

I use five bead boxes to keep the hardware in. Left and right wing. Interior. Exterior. Engine and prop. Makes it way easier to put things back together.

Consumables this time were filters, oil, hydraulic fluid, cotter pins for wheels, and a few zip ties.

The Global Positioning System is a space-based radio navigation system used to determine precise position anywhere in the world. The 24 satellite constellation is designed to ensure at least five satellites are always visible to a user worldwide. A minimum of four satellites is necessary for receivers to establish an accurate three−dimensional position.

There are two types of GPS systems certified for use in aircraft. The AIM refers to them without clearly explaining what they are. Equipment certified under TSO−C145() or TSO−C146() are referred to as augmented GPS, WAAS-capable GPS, or WAAS. Prior to WAAS availability, GPS systems were certified under TSO-C129() or TSO-C196(). They are referred to as un-augmented or non-WAAS systems. When the FAA uses the term GPS/WAAS in the aim they are referring to both un-augmented systems (GPS) and WAAS-enabled systems (WAAS).

Integrated units like the Garmin 400W/500W series are certified under TSO-C146a. Devices that feed GPS data to ADS-B devices are certified under TSO-C145a. For example, the GDL 90 includes a TSO-C145a WAAS GPS sensor that can feed other devices with position information.

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)
RAIM is the capability of a GPS receiver to perform integrity monitoring on itself by ensuring available satellite signals meet the integrity requirements for a given phase of flight. RAIM requires a minimum of 5 satellites, or 4 satellites and barometric altimeter input (baro−aiding), to detect an integrity anomaly. Baro−aiding is a method of augmenting the GPS integrity solution by using a non-satellite input source in lieu of the fifth satellite. (All modern GPS receivers have baro-aiding.)

The RAIM algorithm can be improve upon by using the aircraft pressure altitude, as the vertical position, although less accurate than the lateral position, can substitute for one of the satellites. This is called Baro Aiding and probably all IFR GPS installations use this. With Baro Aiding, only four satellites are needed to determine a value of RAIM. John D Collins

You can check RAIM graphs at the FAA site sapt.faa.gov. Here’s one for non-precision approaches using a receiver with baro-aiding.

Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)
The WAAS is made up of an integrity reference monitoring network, processing facilities, geostationary satellites, and control facilities. Wide area reference stations and integrity monitors are widely dispersed data collection sites that contain GPS/WAAS ranging receivers that monitor all signals from the GPS, as well as the WAAS geostationary satellites. The reference stations collect measurements from the GPS and WAAS satellites so that differential corrections, ionospheric delay information, GPS/WAAS accuracy, WAAS network time, GPS time, and UTC can be determined. The wide area reference station and integrity monitor data are forwarded to the central data processing sites. These sites process the data in order to determine differential corrections, ionospheric delay information, and GPS/WAAS accuracy, as well as verify residual error bounds for each monitored satellite. The central data processing sites also generate navigation messages for the geostationary satellites and WAAS messages. This information is modulated on the GPS-like signal and broadcast to the users from geostationary satellites. (WAAS Test Team)

If for some reason, the WAAS signal can’t be received, the WAAS GPS defaults to a non-WAAS mode of operation and RAIM is used.

In general, inside the WAAS area of coverage, the WAAS integrity data is used and RAIM is not. That is why one does not need to check RAIM availability for a flight with a WAAS receiver, unless they are flying outside the service volume of WAAS or there is a WAAS system wide outage via a NOTAM. John D Collins

IFR Use of GPS
Handheld GPS
VFR GPS panel mount receivers and hand−held units have no RAIM alerting capability. This prevents the pilot from being alerted to the loss of the required number of satellites in view, or the detection of a position error. Portable, wireless, ADS-B and WAAS GPS receivers like Stratus and Garmin GDL 39 do have WAAS but are not certified for IFR flight. Therefore:
Visual flight rules (VFR) and hand−held GPS systems are not authorized for IFR navigation, instrument approaches, or as a principal instrument flight reference.

Non-WAAS
Aircraft using [un-augmented GPS] for navigation under IFR must be equipped with an alternate approved and operational means of navigation suitable for navigating the proposed route of flight. (Examples of alternate navigation equipment include VOR or DME/DME/IRU capability). Active monitoring of alternative navigation equipment is not required when RAIM is available for integrity monitoring. Active monitoring of an alternate means of navigation is required when the GPS RAIM capability is lost.

The point of the special rules using GPS as an alternate has to do with the fact that non-WAAS GPS is supplementary navigation. That means, you must be equipped with other navigation systems suitable for the route being flown that may be used in the event that GPS is not available. This includes considerations where you plan to use GPS in lieu of other required equipment such as a DME or ADF. John D Collins

GPS with WAAS
1−1−18 9. Unlike TSO−C129 avionics, which were certified as a supplement to other means of navigation, WAAS avionics are evaluated without reliance on other navigation systems. As such, installation of WAAS avionics does not require the aircraft to have other equipment appropriate to the route to be flown.

In the case of a WAAS GPS, it meets the requirements of FAR 91.205 without any other equipment being installed, so there are no restrictions on using suitable approaches with GPS. However, the WAAS integrity may or may not always be sufficient to support LP, LPV, or LNAV/VNAV vertical guidance. So the planning must be based on using the LNAV minimums, for which the standard alternate weather is 800-2. John D Collins

Preflight
1−1−17. b.1.c (2) Database Currency. Check the currency of the database. Databases must be updated for IFR operations and should be updated for all other operations. However, there is no requirement for databases to be updated for VFR navigation.

In addition to checking the date of the database and making sure that any waypoints on your route still exist, it is important to pay attention the startup screen. Note how the vertical bar (LCDI) is not half-left. In this case it was due to a failed indicator, but it could also be due to a problem with the receiver.

1−1−17. 3. Oceanic, Domestic, En Route, and Terminal Area Operations
(b) Conduct GPS domestic, en route, and terminal IFR operations only when approved avionics systems are installed. Pilots may use either un-augmented GPS or GPS/WAAS.

(2) Ground−based navigation equipment is not required to be installed and operating for en route IFR operations when using GPS/WAAS navigation systems. All operators should ensure that an alternate means of navigation is available in the unlikely event the GPS/WAAS navigation system becomes inoperative.

(3) Q-routes and T-routes outside Alaska. Q-routes require system performance currently met by GPS, GPS/WAAS… T-routes require GPS or GPS/WAAS equipment.

Note: Q-routes (high) are available for use by RNAV equipped aircraft between 18,000 feet MSL and FL 450 inclusive. Q-routes are depicted on Enroute High Altitude Charts.

T-routes (low) are available for use by RNAV equipped aircraft from 1,200 feet above the surface (or in some instances higher) up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. T-routes are depicted on Enroute Low Altitude Charts

IFR Approach and Departure
(c) GPS IFR approach/departure operations can be conducted when approved avionics systems are installed and the following requirements are met:
  (1) The aircraft is [GPS/WAAS certified]… and
  (2) The approach/departure must be retrievable from the current airborne navigation database in the navigation computer. The system must be able to retrieve the procedure by name from the aircraft navigation database. Manual entry of waypoints using latitude/longitude or place/bearing is not permitted for approach procedure.

Departures and Instrument Departure Procedures (DPs)
The GPS receiver must be set to terminal (±1 NM) CDI sensitivity and the navigation routes contained in the database in order to fly published IFR charted departures and DPs. …Certain segments of a DP may require some manual intervention by the pilot, especially when radar vectored to a course or required to intercept a specific course to a waypoint.

GPS Instrument Approach Procedures
(a) GPS overlay approaches are designated non−precision instrument approach procedures that pilots are authorized to fly using GPS avionics. Overlay procedures are identified by the “name of the procedure” and “or GPS” (e.g., VOR/DME or GPS RWY 15) in the title.

(b) Stand−alone approach procedures specifically designed for GPS systems have replaced many of the original overlay approaches. All approaches that contain “GPS” in the title (e.g., “VOR or GPS RWY 24,” “GPS RWY 24,” or “RNAV (GPS) RWY 24”) can be flown using GPS. GPS−equipped aircraft do not need underlying ground−based NAVAIDs or associated aircraft avionics to fly the approach. Monitoring the underlying approach with ground−based NAVAIDs is suggested when able.

[Non-WAAS equipped] may file based on a GPS−based IAP at either the destination or the alternate airport, but not at both locations.

At the alternate airport, pilots may plan for:
  (1) Lateral navigation (LNAV) or circling minimum descent altitude (MDA);

The AFM Supplement for the Garmin GNS430 WAAS reinforces this:

It is not acceptable to flight plan a required alternate airport based on RNAV(GPS) LP/LPV or LNAV/VNAV approach minimums. The required alternate airport must be flight planned using an LNAV approach minimums or available ground-based approach aid.

The AIM includes more verbiage about alternates using (baro-VNAV) equipment and RNP 0.3 DA on an RNAV (RNP) IAP. You can ignore references like this in the AIM and other FAA documents if you are a Part 91 pilot since you almost certainly do not have the equipment or training required. Most of these approaches also have an AUTHORIZATION REQUIRED note under the minimums.

Baro VNAV
Baro-VNAV is an RNAV system which uses barometric altitude information from the aircraft’s altimeter to compute vertical guidance for the pilot. Most air carrier aircraft are equipped with Baro VNAV as are many of the FMS equipped Corporate aircraft. Very few general aviation piston aircraft have this equipment installed, although it is availalbe on new Cirrus aircraft.

RNAV (RNP) approaches

RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance. RNP defines a navigation standard that the aircraft must remain within 95% of the time and the obstacle protection is based on the particular RNP value. The Garmin GNSS navigation system complies with the equipment requirements of AC 90-105 and meets the equipment performance and functional requirements to conduct RNP terminal departure and arrival procedures and RNP approach procedures without RF (radius to fix) legs.

However, most pilots are not permitted to do RNAV (RNP) approaches since the aircraft requires special equipment, autopilot, and pilot training. With RNP, there is also a leg type that not all RNP capable avionics are capable of performing called the RF leg (Radius to a Fix)—although an update to the Garmin GTN series will allow it. It is a curved path from one waypoint to another along a constant radius of an arc where the centerpoint of the radius is established at a point off to the inside of the arc.

(e) Procedures for Accomplishing GPS Approaches

From Plane and Pilot This is how it happens. The pilot turns base to final and notices a following wind is causing him to overshoot the centerline. He adds a little left uncoordinated rudder in an attempt to bring the nose of the aircraft back toward the runway. The aircraft rolls a bit to the left and he compensates by adding some right aileron to hold the 30-degree bank angle. The nose also drops slightly, so he compensates by pulling back a bit on the yoke or stick and adding a little power to maintain airspeed. Suddenly, the aircraft snap-rolls left to 150 degrees of bank. He instinctively pulls back on the yoke or stick to get the nose back to the horizon and, at the same time, uses aileron to turn the aircraft back to the right. Without warning, the airplane stalls, rolls inverted and spirals into the ground.…

From the Airplane Flying Handbook The aerodynamic effects of the uncoordinated, cross-control stall can surprise the unwary pilot because it can occur with very little warning and can be deadly if it occurs close to the ground. The nose may pitch down, the bank angle may suddenly change, and the airplane may continue to roll to an inverted position, which is usually the beginning of a spin. It is therefore essential for the pilot to follow the stall recovery procedure by reducing the AOA until the stall warning has been eliminated, then roll wings level using ailerons, and coordinate with rudder inputs before the airplane enters a spiral or spin.

A cross-control stall occurs when the critical AOA is exceeded with aileron pressure applied in one direction and rudder pressure in the opposite direction, causing uncoordinated flight. A skidding cross-control stall is most likely to occur in the traffic pattern during a poorly planned and executed base-to-final approach turn in which the airplane overshoots the runway centerline and the pilot attempts to correct back to centerline by increasing the bank angle, increasing back elevator pressure, and applying rudder in the direction of the turn (i.e., inside or bottom rudder pressure) to bring the nose around further to align it with the runway. The difference in lift between the inside and outside wing will increase, resulting in an unwanted increase in bank angle. At the same time, the nose of the airplane slices downward through the horizon. The natural reaction to this may be for the pilot to pull back on the elevator control, increasing the AOA toward critical. Should a stall be encountered with these inputs, the airplane may rapidly enter a spin. The safest action for an “overshoot” is to perform a go-around. At the relatively low altitude of a base-to-final approach turn, a pilot should be reluctant to use angles of bank beyond 30 degrees to correct back to runway centerline.

It is important for the pilot to understand that a stall is the result of exceeding the critical AOA, not of insufficient airspeed. The term “stalling speed” can be misleading, as this speed is often discussed when assuming 1G flight at a particular weight and configuration. Increased load factor directly affects stall speed (as well as do other factors such as gross weight, center of gravity, and flap setting). Therefore, it is possible to stall the wing at any airspeed, at any flight attitude, and at any power setting. For example, if a pilot maintains airspeed and rolls into a coordinated, level 60° banked turn, the load factor is 2Gs, and the airplane will stall at a speed that is 40 percent higher than the straight-and-level stall speed. In that 2G level turn, the pilot has to increase AOA to increase the lift required to maintain altitude.

When an airplane is banked, the total lift is comprised of a vertical component of lift and a horizontal component of lift. In order to not lose altitude, the pilot must increase the wing’s angle of attack (AOA) to ensure that the vertical component of lift is sufficient to maintain altitude. In a steep turn, the pilot will need to increase pitch with elevator back pressures that are greater than what has been previously utilized. Total lift must increase substantially to balance the load factor or G-force (G). The load factor is the vector resultant of gravity and centrifugal force. For example, in a level altitude, 45° banked turn, the resulting load factor is 1.4; in a level altitude, 60° banked turn, the resulting load factor is 2.0. To put this in perspective, with a load factor of 2.0, the effective weight of the aircraft will double. Pilots should realize load factors increase dramatically beyond 60°.

Avoiding Stall and Spin Accidents

Takeoffs and Landing: Base-to-Final Turn
Factoid: Base to final turn stalls account for 10% of all fatal maneuvering accidents.

Tip: If you are on downwind and find yourself being pushed toward the runway, your base leg will be need to be shorter to account for the wind.

Note: If you fly a slow airplane, like a Cherokee, and then switch to a faster airplane, like a Cessna 210, your turn will be wider because your airspeed will be faster. You’ll need to start your turn to final sooner than with a slower plane or you will overshoot the centerline.

Deadly Turn – Base Leg to Final Approach
Here’s some good information using diagrams—if you like that kind of thing.

Anatomy of a Cirrus Stall Accident
Tip: Steep banks and high load factors in the traffic pattern invite disaster.

Cirrus FATAL CRASH in Hobby-Houston!
This is the actual ATC tapes from a fatal stall-spin accident. The accident occurred after several landing attempts where the Cirrus overshot the runway. The lesson to be learned from this accident is that if things are going badly, ask for vectors away from the runway an deither go somewhere that isn’t as busy or clear your head and come back in fresh.

“Quit Stalling–or Spin In” 1945 US Navy Pilot Training Film
Case studies of lots of ways that Navy pilots found to spin in their airplanes—not just in the traffic pattern. These accidents demonstrate the adage that you can stall at any airspeed and any attitude.

Tip:
1. The steeper the bank or the sharper the pull-up—the higher the “G”.
2. The higher the “G” and the heavier the load, the higher the stalling speed.
3. Keep flying speed—always!
4. Never make steep turns at low altitudes.

Tip: Know how much airspeed you need to carry at every angle of bank then add a few knots for safety.

In most cases airspeed is a good substitute for angle of attack. If your airspeed is high your angle of attack is likely low. Keeping your airspeed in the green will keep your angle of attack below the stall angle. However, as we’ve seen in the previous video, that doesn’t apply with high or low pitch angles and steep bank angles—exactly the conditions pilots can inadvertently get into on turn to final.

Power Off Stall – Private Pilot
If you like classroom explanations of stalls, Cyndy Hollman does a good job explaining them.

Icing can occur any time there is visible moisture and the temperature is between +02 and −10 degrees Celsius. As shown in the videos, icing can accumulate gradually or suddenly, with catastrophic effects. The FAA has put out a lot of information on icing—including an entire chapter in AC 00-6b Aviation Weather. The WINGS program has several courses on icing as well. The FARs address it, and the Aviation Weather Center provides icing forecasts. There is also lots of information on icing, including training videos and quizzes at the AOPA Air Safety Institute.

AIM Section 7 Weather
In the CONUS, SIGMETs are issued when the following phenomena occur or are expected to occur: (a) Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms.

Any convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, and low−level wind shear. A convective SIGMET may be issued for any convective situation that the forecaster feels is hazardous to all categories of aircraft.

AIRMET Zulu describes moderate icing and provides freezing level heights.

A clear radar display (no echoes) does not mean that there is no significant weather within the coverage of the radar site. Clouds and fog are not detected by the radar. However, when echoes are present, turbulence can be implied by the intensity of the precipitation, and icing is implied by the presence of the precipitation at temperatures at or below zero degrees Celsius.

PIREPs Relating to Airframe Icing
The effects of ice on aircraft are cumulative-thrust is reduced, drag increases, lift lessens, and weight increases. The results are an increase in stall speed and a deterioration of aircraft performance. In extreme cases, 2 to 3 inches of ice can form on the leading edge of the airfoil in less than 5 minutes. It takes but 1/2 inch of ice to reduce the lifting power of some aircraft by 50 percent and increases the frictional drag by an equal percentage.

A pilot can expect icing when flying in visible precipitation, such as rain or cloud droplets, and the temperature is between +02 and −10 degrees Celsius. When icing is detected, a pilot should do one of two things, particularly if the aircraft is not equipped with deicing equipment; get out of the area of precipitation; or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing. This “warmer” altitude may not always be a lower altitude. Proper preflight action includes obtaining information on the freezing level and the above freezing levels in precipitation areas. Report icing to ATC, and if operating IFR, request new routing or altitude if icing will be a hazard. Be sure to give the type of aircraft to ATC when reporting icing. The following describes how to report icing conditions.

1. Trace. Ice becomes perceptible. Rate of accumulation slightly greater than sublimation. Deicing/anti-icing equipment is not utilized unless encountered for an extended period of time (over 1 hour).

2. Light. The rate of accumulation may create a problem if flight is prolonged in this environment (over 1 hour). Occasional use of deicing/anti-icing equipment removes/prevents accumulation. It does not present a problem if the deicing/anti-icing equipment is used.

3. Moderate. The rate of accumulation is such that even short encounters become potentially hazardous and use of deicing/anti-icing equipment or flight diversion is necessary.

4. Severe. The rate of accumulation is such that ice protection systems fail to remove the accumulation of ice, or ice accumulates in locations not normally prone to icing, such as areas aft of protected surfaces and any other areas identified by the manufacturer. Immediate exit from the condition is necessary.

Types of Icing
Rime ice. Rough, milky, opaque ice formed by the instantaneous freezing of small supercooled water droplets. The rapid freezing results in air being trapped, giving the ice its opaque appearance and making it porous and brittle. Rime ice typically accretes along the stagnation line of an airfoil and is more regular in shape and conformal to the airfoil than glaze ice.

Clear ice. A glossy, clear, or translucent ice formed by the relatively slow freezing of large supercooled water droplets. With larger accretions, the ice shape typically includes “horns” protruding from unprotected leading edge surfaces.

Mixed. A combination of rime and clear ice.

It is the ice shape, rather than the clarity or color of the ice, which is most likely to be accurately assessed from the cockpit.

Operators of large turbine aircraft have regulations related to icing and it would behoove operators of GA airplanes to follow the same rules, except substitute forecast or known icing for forecast light or moderate icing

Pilots Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge
For example, if ice, snow, and frost are allowed to accumulate on the surface of an aircraft, the smooth airflow over the wing is disrupted. This causes the boundary layer to separate at an AOA lower than that of the critical angle. Lift is greatly reduced, altering expected aircraft performance. If ice is allowed to accumulate on the aircraft during flight, the weight of the aircraft is increased while the ability to generate lift is decreased. As little as 0.8 millimeter (1/32 inch) of ice on the upper wing surface increases drag and reduces aircraft lift by 25 percent.

Frost disrupts the flow of air over the wing and can drastically reduce the production of lift. It also increases drag, which when combined with lowered lift production, can adversely affect the ability to take off. An aircraft must be thoroughly cleaned and free of frost prior to beginning a flight.

Instrument Flying Handbook
In extreme cases, two to three inches of ice can form on the leading edge of the airfoil in less than 5 minutes. It takes only 1⁄2 inch of ice to reduce the lifting power of some aircraft by 50 percent and increases the frictional drag by an equal percentage.

Airplane Flying Handbook
Ice accumulates unevenly on the airplane. It adds weight and drag (primarily drag) and decreases thrust and lift. Even wing shape affects ice accumulation; thin airfoil sections are more prone to ice accumulation than thick, highly- cambered sections. For this reason, certain surfaces, such as the horizontal stabilizer, are more prone to icing than the wing. With ice accumulations, landing approaches should be made with a minimum wing flap setting (flap extension increases the AOA of the horizontal stabilizer) and with an added margin of airspeed. Sudden and large configuration and airspeed changes should be avoided.

Unless otherwise recommended in the AFM/POH, the autopilot should not be used in icing conditions. Continuous use of the autopilot masks trim and handling changes that occur with ice accumulation. Without this control feedback, the pilot may not be aware of ice accumulation building to hazardous levels. The autopilot suddenly disconnects when it reaches design limits, and the pilot may find the airplane has assumed unsatisfactory handling characteristics.

Advisory Circular AC 135-17
Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost formations having thickness and surface roughness similar to medium or course sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surfaces of a wing can reduce wing lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

Changes in lift and drag significantly increase stall speed, reduce controllability, and alter aircraft flight characteristics. Thicker or rougher frozen contaminants can have increasing adverse effects on lift, drag, stall speed, stability and control, and aircraft performance with the primary influence being surface roughness located on critical portions of an aerodynamic surface. These adverse effects on the aerodynamic properties of the airfoil may result in sudden departure from the commanded flight path and may not be preceded by or aerodynamic warning to the pilot.

AOPA Aircraft De-icing and Anti-Icing Systems
This Safety Advisor explains the differences and highlights some new systems that are being tested for light aircraft. It also points out that on light GA aircraft, the systems are non-hazard systems that are designed to get you out of icing conditions and not FIKI—designed for flight into known icing conditions.

And as the description implies, anti-icing systems are designed to prevent ice formation. Some anti-icing systems on GA aircraft are weeping wings (TKS systems are an example), heated pitot tubes, and heated windshield plates. The most common de-icing system on GA aircraft is flexible rubber-like boots that expand and contract on ice-prone areas of the aircraft.

Aircraft Certification
Small GA aircraft are not certified for flight into known icing conditions and newer AFMs explicitly state this in their limitations section. Planes produced before standardized AFMs usually do not mention this limitation, but it still applies.

Icing Forecast
You can view icing forecasts at the NOAA Aviation Weather Center site. Click on the icing tab at the top of the image. Use the slider at the side of the image to adjust the altitude and the slider at the top to adjust the forecast period.

Pireps
You can view icing pireps at the NOAA Aviation Weather Center site. EFBs like ForeFlight can be configured to display pireps. Icing looks like a trident. Remember to check the type of aircraft since light icing in an airliner might be considered moderate or severe in a Cessna 172.

Knowledge Test Questions
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil can:
reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

(IFR Sample Test November 29, 2016) A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is
A) keeping the autopilot engaged while monitoring the system.
B) periodically disengaging the auto pilot and hand flying the airplane.
C) periodically disengaging and immediately reengaging the altitude hold function.

Like a lot of Knowledge Test questions, none of these answers is correct, if you believe the information in the rest of this post. However, B appears to be least incorrect. It would be correct if they left out the word ‘periodically’. If you are going to use the autopilot, it seems to me that using the autopilot to maintain heading and wings level but disengaging the altitude hold function would give you the most information on whether the icing is affecting aircraft performance.

Icing for General Aviation Pilots

Ice Induced Stall Pilot Training

Real Pilot Story: Ambushed by Ice
A Cessna 182 pilot that survived an encounter with severe icing.

Tip: If you encounter sudden severe icing turn the autopilot off, carb heat on, and ask for lower.

Tip: Have approach charts for airports on your route handy. But if you don’t ATC can help you out.

Tip: Leave flaps up for landing.

Factoid: Airframe ice brings down about a quarter of all GA airplanes lost to weather.

Real Pilot Story: Ambushed by Ice

Accident Case Study: Airframe Icing
The pilot of a Cirrus SR22 encountered unforecast icing over the Sierra Nevada mountains.

Tip: If you start picking up ice, let ATC know and get out of it immediately.

Real Pilot Story: Icing Encounter

Icing for General Aviation Pilots
How to de-ice an airplane

A recent post on Aviation Stack Exchange asked whether pilots need to be good at maths. The short answer is that you don’t really need any advanced math skills—although they sometime help to understand things—but you do need to have good arithmetic skills, an understanding of compass points, and an understanding of how graphs and charts work. Here are a few quick examples to show what I mean.

Headwind or Tailwind?
(In the US, runways and wind direction use magnetic direction. In Europe, they often use true direction.) Suppose you are flying to a field without a control tower and one runway that is labelled 11/29. First you listen to the weather broadcast (ATIS) to find out the wind direction and intensity. Suppose that it is 330 at 25. Do you land on runway 29 or runway 11?

Take the wind direction and subtract the runway heading. For Rwy 29 you get 330 – 290 = 40. The wind is coming at you from 40° to the left of the runway. For Rwy 11 you get 330 – 110 = 220. That number is bigger than 180, so it is a tailwind. You don’t usually want to land with a tailwind, so Rwy 29 is the one you will pick.

In this case, the wind is coming at you from 220° to the left of the runway. But that’s probably not the best way to think about it. Subtract 180° from 220° and you get 40° from behind—a tailwind.

Cross-wind Component
Then you have to determine whether the wind is too strong to land on Rwy 29. Airplanes have what is called a maximum demonstrated crosswind—the maximum amount of crosswind that a skilled pilot can land in. You don’t have to know any trigonometry to know how the crosswind component is calculated. There is a chart for figuring out the crosswind component, or you can use a rule of thumb that gets you close enough. If you think of the wind direction in terms of a clock face, you can determine the crosswind component. When the wind is 15° from the runway then imagine a clock face at 15 minutes past the hour. That’s one-quarter of an hour and the crosswind component is one-quarter. A wind at 30° is one-half, 45° is three-quarters, etc. Anything more than 60° is essentially all crosswind. So our wind of 40° is ⅔ of the clock face. The crosswind component is ⅔ * 25 or about 17. The maximum demonstrated crosswind for most light airplanes is around 17 kts, so this is going to be a challenging landing.

You don’t need to to know that determining the direction of the other runway uses modulo 36 arithmetic but you need to be able to understand it. You can always look at your heading indicator or VOR indicator to determine the runway labels and To/From directions for VORs.

Glide Range
Another example is figuring out your gliding distance if you have an engine out. Most general aviation aircraft have a glide ratio in the 8:1 to 12:1 range. You need to know how to read the chart in the owner’s manual to determine the glide ratio for your airplane. This post explains more about glide ratios and range.

This means that for every 1,000′ of altitude, they can glide 8,000′ to 12,000′. Suppose you are on a cross-country flight at 5,500′ in my Cherokee that has a 9:1 glide ratio. How far can you glide. We know that 5,500′ is about 1 statute mile, so you can glide 9 statute miles. If you press the nearest button on your GPS, you can see if there any airports in range. However, the distances on your GPS are usually in nautical miles, so you need to know that a nautical mile is about 6,000′ so your gliding range in nautical miles is about 15% less than in statute miles.

Starting Descent
For passenger comfort, you normally descend an unpressurized plane at around 500 feet per minute. As in the example above, when do you need to start your descent to arrive at a 1,200′ pattern altitude 3 miles from the airport?

Doing a little quick subtraction, you need to descend around 3,000′. That’s six minutes (3,000′ ÷ 500’/minute). So how far will you travel in six minutes? You’ll probably travel faster than normal cruise speed since you’ll be in a descent. Let’s call it 120 kts in my Cherokee. That’s 2 miles per minute. So if you start your descent 12 miles + 3 miles = 15 miles from the airport, then you’ll comfortably arrive at pattern altitude when you want to.

Fuel Remaining
Way too many pilots run out of fuel—seemingly because they can’t do simple arithmetic. My Cherokee burns around 8 gallons per hour in cruise. We fill the Cherokee to the tabs so I start out with 33 gallons of fuel. I always want to land with 1 hour reserve. How many hours can I fly? You could pull out your calculator and do (33 – 8) ÷ 8 = 3.125 or figure out that 33 is a little more than 32 and subtracting 8 gives 24 which is an easy multiple of 8.

The 210 has 89 gallons of useable fuel and burns around 18 gallons per hour in cruise. I’m never sure how close to full it is but there is at least 80 gallons of fuel. Now 5 * 18 is 80, so I can conservatively fly four hours before landing.

Summary
As these examples show, knowing a bit about rounding, chart reading, and simple arithmetic is something every pilot needs to know.

Cessna 182 Engine Failure – Crash Landing
The pilot of this Cessna carefully followed the checklist before takeoff and his engine quit shortly after liftoff. It’s not clear if he did anything to try to restart the engine, but he definitely did the right thing in landing straight ahead.

https://youtu.be/WbqDTuAQoi4

The Impossible Turn – Engine Failure On Takeoff – MzeroA Flight Training
Tip: Don’t turn back unless greater than 1000′ AGL go straight ahead or 30° to either side.

Tip: To return to the runway you took off from you’ll need to make a 210° turn—not 180°.

He gives an example of how with perfect technique and knowing that an engine out is going to happen, it still takes 1,000′ to turn back to the runway.

Real Pilot Story: Power Loss on Takeoff
This guy really had no time from engine failure to landing straight ahead. Concentrate only on the important thing—land the airplane.

Real Pilot Story: The Impossible Turn
You shouldn’t try this, but if everything goes right, you might make it back.

If you are going to attempt to turn back to the runway, you should definitely have recently practiced the technique. This paper proposes that the optimum conditions for returning to the departure runway result from climbing at Vγmax, executing a gliding turn through a 190–220° heading change, using a 45° bank angle at 5% above the stall velocity in the turn using a teardrop shaped flight path.

Engine Failure in a Single Engine

Tip: Know your best glide speed. It varies by weight but at least get close.

Tip: First establish best glide speed and trim the airplane. Then head toward the nearest airport (or a good landing site).

Once you are trimmed and headed to a safe landing site, troubleshoot. Remember to keep flying the airplane.

Tip: Mixture rich, throttle in, master on, fuel pump on, switch tanks, check primer, pull carb heat. Restart. Declare an emergency.

You don’t even need a checklist to remember to do these things, the controls are laid out on the panel. For example, on my Cherokee, start with the mixture-full rich, right next to it is the throttle, then carb heat, don’t need to mess with lights, then comes the boost pump, and finally the primer. The layout was basically the same on my 182 except the fuel selector is under the throttle.

Fuel is delivered to the engine by an engine-driven fuel pump. Low-wing planes almost always have an auxiliary fuel boost pump. High-wing planes often do not.

On a constant speed prop, pull the prop out. It will extend your glide by giving less surface into the wind. On my Cessna 210 and other fuel injected airplanes, there is often an auxiliary fuel pump switch. If an engine out occurs during takeoff, it’s possible that vapor has filled the fuel lines or the engine-driven fuel pump has failed. Immediately, hold the left half of the auxiliary fuel pump switch in “MAX HI” position until aircraft is well clear of obstacles. The procedure for your aircraft may be different, so be sure to read the POH and know the procedure before takeoff.

Tip: If nothing works, pull out the checklist. You should already be familiar with it. Make sure you have done everything on the list.

Most of the time you won’t be near an airport, so you should have appropriate landing sites in mind. Also, be sure you know how to use the nearest button on you GPS. The next video talks about how to figure out your glide range, but for most GA aircraft it is somewhere around a 9:1 ratio. So if you are at 5,500′ you can glide about 9 statute miles (8 nm) in a no wind situation.

Engine Out! From Trouble to Touchdown
Tip: The last part of Aviate, Navigate, Communicate is communicate. Once you have done everything you can to restart the engine and are headed toward your chosen landing spot, communicate. If you are on an IFR flight plan or flight following, you probably can let them know what is going on while you are troubleshooting. If not, then switch to 121.5 and squawk 7700.

Don’t forget to fly the airplane all the way into the crash at the minimum possible speed.

Tip: Don’t switch tanks after you do your runup and use all the runway.

One of the guys on our airfield saw the fog rolling in at Catalina and rushed his takeoff. He didn’t have his fuel selector fully open on one engine. There was enough fuel to taxi and lift off, but when he went to full throttle one engine quit. He crashed and burned on a steep hill just off the runway.

You might also have noticed the guys in the communication videos asking for the full length runway, even when an intersection takeoff would give them more runway than their home field. Like the saying goes, there is nothing as useless as runway behind you.

In order to act as Pilot in Command of an aircraft a pilot must have three things in their possession: Medical, Photo ID, and Pilot’s Certificate. Per §61.51 student pilots must carry their logbook on solo cross-country flights and sport pilots must carry logbooks (or other evidence of endorsements) on all flights.

§61.3 Requirement for certificates, ratings, and authorizations has the details, but the important parts for most pilots are below:

(a) Required pilot certificate for operating a civil aircraft of the United States… in the person’s physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization

(2) Has a photo identification that is in that person’s physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization. The photo identification must be a:

Acceptable photo ID includes a driver’s license, government identification card, passport, or credential that authorizes unescorted access to a security identification display area at an airport regulated under 49 CFR part 1542.

(c) Medical certificate. (1) A person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft only if that person holds the appropriate medical certificate issued under part 67 of this chapter, or other documentation acceptable to the FAA, that is in that person’s physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.

Beginning May 1, 2017 (assuming the current administration doesn’t bollix up the works) pilots may fly with just a driver’s license, if you comply with the medical rules and are flying under Part 91 in a plane with 6 or fewer seats.

BasicMed – 3rd Class Medical Reform

TRAFFIC IN SIGHT. Used by pilots to inform a controller that previously issued traffic is in sight. (See NEGATIVE CONTACT.) (See TRAFFIC ADVISORIES.)

NEGATIVE CONTACT. Used by pilots to inform ATC that:
a. Previously issued traffic is not in sight. It may be followed by the pilot’s request for the controller to provide assistance in avoiding the traffic.
b. They were unable to contact ATC on a particular frequency.

After working radar for ten years I can say that offering traffic info is the last item on the list of things to do. Also, air time is pricey so say the most with the less words possible. “Looking” would work in my book. Think of it from a Controllers side, if there was in incident, at least he/she made an effort to warn you so his/her back end would be protected if there was a review. David Dressler

ATC doesn’t care if you have the traffic on a TCAS type system because it doesn’t change anything on their end. Once you have communicated to them that you have traffic in sight, then they can issue commands such has maintain visual separation.

One of the things that is often overlooked on a pre-flight is tire pressure. Sure, you look at the tires and the look right, but because of the thick sidewalls, even if they look right they may not have the correct pressure. I use use a good dial-type pressure gauge and I have heard that digital gauges can be very accurate as well. The cheap stick-type gauges are handy, but many aren’t accurate. Check out the online reviews before you buy one. Likewise, the pressure indicator on most inexpensive inflators is not very accurate. The tire inflator that I keep in my car shows 10 psi low.

The inflation pressures shown are for unloaded tires. When tires are inflated under load, the applicable pressures should be increased four percent.

According to the Michelin Care and Service Manual, Michelin aircraft tires or tubes have no age limit and may be placed in service, regardless of their age, provided all inspection criteria for service/storage/mounting and individual customer-imposed restrictions are met.… Temperatures should remain between 0°C/32°F and 40°C/104°F. So keeping a spare inner tube in the plane when flying is probably a good idea—but leaving one in a plane that lives on the ramp is probably not the best idea.

Nitrogen

Many regulatory agencies require the use of nitrogen when inflating tires for aircraft above a specified Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW ). Michelin recommends the use of a dry, commercial grade nitrogen of at least 97% purity when inflating all aircraft tires. Nitrogen provides a stable, inert inflation gas while eliminating the introduction of moisture into the tire cavity. For light aircraft tires, the amount of moisture introduced is negligible. The temperatures that airline tires reach are substantial so the effects of oxygen on tires is accelerated. Small aircraft tires never get very hot so the oxidation effect is negligible.

Effect of Cold Weather

From Michelin, A drop of 3°C/5°F will reduce inflation pressure 1%. When I last checked the tire pressures on my Cherokee the temperature was 85°. When I checked them recently, the temperature was in the 50s. Even without any leaking, the reduction of 9% from a pressure of 24 psi would be a couple of pounds. On the Cessna 210 it would be around five psi. If you live in a colder climate, the difference in pressure could be substantial.

This implies that tires should always be checked when cold. The effect is minimal on small aircraft tires, but not zero.

Effects of Underinflation

Too little pressure can be harmful to your tires and dangerous to your aircraft and those in it. Underinflated tires can creep or slip on the wheel under stress or when brakes are applied. Valve stems can be damaged or sheared off and the tire, tube, or complete wheel assembly can be damaged or destroyed. Excessive shoulder wear may also be seen.

Underinflation can allow the sidewalls of the tire to be crushed by the wheel’s rim flanges under landing impact, or upon striking the edge of the runway while maneuvering. Tires may flex over the wheel flange, with the possibility of damage to the bead and lower sidewall areas. The result can be a bruise, break or rupture of the cord body. In any case where the bead or cord body of the tire is damaged, the tire is no longer safe to use and must be replaced.

reported on an accident directly attributed to low tire pressure. On September 19, 2008, a Learjet 60 aircraft operating under Part 135 crashed during a rejected takeoff at the Columbia, South Carolina airport.… The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) investigation revealed that the accident aircraft’s tire pressure had not been checked in approximately three weeks.

Loaded versus Unloaded Tires

Be sure that it is clear whether operating inflation pressures are given for loaded or unloaded tire conditions. A tire’s inflation pressure when loaded will be 4% higher than when unloaded (Loaded pressure = 1.04 x unloaded pressure).

Properly Inflating Tube-Type Tires

Air is usually trapped between the tire and the tube at the time of mounting. Although initial readings indicate proper pressure, the trapped air will seep out around the valve stem hole in the wheel, and under the beads. Within a few days, as the tube expands to fill the void left by the trapped air, the tire may become severely underinflated. To compensate for this effect, check tire pressure before each flight for several days after installation, adjusting as necessary, until the tire maintains proper pressure.

Hydroplaning

According to the Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Tire pressure is a factor in dynamic hydroplaning. Using the simple formula in Figure 11-18, a pilot can calculate the minimum speed, in knots, at which hydroplaning begins. In plain language, the minimum hydroplaning speed is determined by multiplying the square root of the main gear tire pressure in psi by nine. For example, if the main gear tire pressure is at 36 psi, the aircraft would begin hydroplaning at 54 knots.

If, like on my Cessna 210, the main gear tire pressure is 55 psi then normally hydroplaning would start at 67 knots. However, if they are severely under-inflated, say 40 psi, then hydroplaning would start at 57 knots. And you can’t tell just by looking at them that they have lost that much pressure—you need to use a good tire gauge to measure the pressure.

Leakstop tubes

Normal tubes lose a few percent of their pressure every week. According to both Michelin and Goodyear a tire/wheel assembly can lose as much as five percent (5%) of the inflation pressure in a 24-hour period and still be considered normal. Leakstop or Airstop® tubes are designed to hold pressures for much longer and seem to work.

Replacement

The wheels on the Cherokee are pitched inward a bit so they tend to wear on the inside edge before the outside. We replace tires when the wear level reaches the bottom of any groove along the middle of the tire or the reinforcing ply is exposed.

Per FAR Part 43 you can change the tires yourself.
(c) Preventive maintenance. Preventive maintenance is limited to the following work, provided it does not involve complex assembly operations:
(1) Removal, installation, and repair of landing gear tires.

You need training from your A&P before you perform maintenance, but this video can refresh your memory.

According to the Goodyear Aircraft Tire DataBook, A new tube should be used when installing in a new tire. Tubes, like tires, grow in service, taking a permanent set of about 25% larger. This makes a used tube too large to use in a new tire which would cause a wrinkle and lead to a leak.

Goodyear concurs It is recommended that tubes not be reused; they can grow as much as 25% in service. Reusing them can result in folded, pinched tubes which can fail or create an imbalance.

Here’s an interesting video showing what happens to airline tires when they get too hot.

Say It Right! Radio Communications In Today’s Airspace (2008)
Tip: When using flight following or on an IFR flight plan, when changing to another controller’s frequency, do not use “With you at…”, or “Checkin in…”. Simply state your full aircraft identification and your altitude. If climbing or descending, state your final altitude. e.g. “Centurion 59049 eight thousand five hundred. Climbing one zero, ten thousand, five hundred.”

The only exception would be when a controller is covering two sectors and tells you, “Change to my frequency 1nn.nn”. In that case, switch frequencies and then say “With you on 1nn.nn”.

From the AIM 5-3-2

1. (Name) CENTER, (aircraft identification), LEVEL (altitude or flight level).

2. (Name) CENTER, (aircraft identification), LEAVING (exact altitude or flight level), CLIMBING TO OR DESCENDING TO (altitude of flight level).

NOTE−Exact altitude or flight level means to the nearest 100 foot increment. Exact altitude or flight level reports on initial contact provide ATC with information required prior to using Mode C altitude information for separation purposes.

Listen Up, Read Back, Fly Right – FAA Safety Video
The video emphasized using standard phraseology, but I noted that the pilot says “Descending to two thousand”. In general, saying “for” and “to” are to be avoided since they can be confused with “four” and “two”. In practice, lots of pilots do it so ATC is probably used to it. If a Cessna is cleared to climb to 4,500, the controller won’t think that they think they are supposed to climb to 44,500 if they say “for four thousand five hundred”.

If you think you’ve been forgotten, it doesn’t hurt to check. If you are holding short of a runway, and it seems like a long time has passed, chances are the controller hasn’t forgotten you but is on the phone with departure or is otherwise occupied. However, if you are told to “line up and wait” and are lined up on the runway, you should be especially vigilant. Definitely let the controller know if someone else has been cleared to land.

At our Class D airport one of the student pilots approached the airport at 5:15 when there was a lot of traffic in the pattern. He was told to fly to a nearby VOR. After about ten minutes of flying around the VOR, he contacted the tower and the acknowledged that they had forgotten about him.

VFR Communications Training Video from Sporty’s Pilot Shop
Tip: Fly runway heading means the magnetic heading of the runway, not the runway number. At Lunken the runway is 21 but if told to fly runway heading you should fly a heading of 206°—not 210°. Do not apply drift correction.

PILOT ATC COMMUNICATIONS VFR
If you are already a pilot, this is stuff you know. However, if you are new to flying, this is a good one-hour introduction to ATC. I like the way the flight instructor and controller explain how to do things the right way.

Tip: Four Ws
Who are you calling. Who are we. Where are we. What do we want.

Tip: Read back all runway hold short instructions.

Tip: Read back commands. Acknowledge information.

The only thing I disagree with in his presentation is that when he approached an uncontrolled airport he’ll say “Any traffic please advise.” Unless you are on an IFR flight plan and are being dumped into the airport environment from a short distance away, you really should be monitoring the CTAF from far away that you know what the traffic is at the airport. If for some reason, you are on an IFR flight plan, and can’t monitor the traffic, then it would be appropriate to ask for traffic. In that case, when you give your position, make sure you use locations that a VFR pilot would understand. They probably don’t know where the Final Approach Fix is or any of the GPS waypoints on the approach.

https://youtu.be/Bl51tIcIrLU

PILOT ATC COMMUNICATIONS IFR
Here’s another classroom lesson from Ryan Anderson and a controller

Tip: ARTCC sectors are defined by areas on the ground and also by altitude. So you can have Tower, Approach, Center Both Low Altitude and High Altitude ATC in one geographic area.

Tip: When being turned to the final approach course, you will always get Position, Heading, Altitude, Cleared for Approach, Runway

Tip: When you hit the outer marker, you’ll be told to contact the tower.

Tip: Do not confuse the lightning bolt/arrow with the maltese cross. The lightning bolt is the glide slope intercept, the maltese cross is always the FAF.

Now that you understand how to make radio calls, here’s few flights to show you how it’s done.

Ground School: Landing at Class C Airport | ATC Radio Communications
Tip: When making first contact to a really busy controller, just give your callsign. They’ll get back to you when they have time to handle your request.

One nit: §91.105 Flight crewmembers at stations. (b) Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station.

Ground School: Departing Class C Airport | Radio ATC Communications

Here’s Stevo ratcheting it up a notch in his TBM 850 into Tampa. Not a whole lot different from landing at any other airport.
Flight VLOG – Military Airspace / Class B Airport Arrival

Class Bravo Airspace Departure – VFR Radio Communications by MzeroA Flight Training

Tip: In a really busy airport, give them a cold call first—just Clearance Delivery and your callsign.

Tip: When you call for clearance give them your callsign, aircraft type, location, destination, cruising altitude, and ATIS.

Unlike other CFIs on this page, he uses lots more verbiage when reading back his clearance than they recommend. After listening to the other pilots, you might have some comments on his performance—lots of little mistakes. It’s a lot like I imagine how I’d perform in a Class B airspace.

https://youtu.be/ixQvvHHH5YQ

Non-Towered Airport Operations
Gary Wing has lots of good videos, in this one he lands in Thermal, California.

Tip: Other traffic can’t read your tail number but then can see your colors. He uses Green Cub when making his calls.

Tip: Do some s-turns to check for traffic approaching you from the left or right—especially if you are flying a slow trainer-type aircraft.

AOPA is reminding members that the FAA will discontinue the universal Flight Watch frequency 122.0 MHz for in-flight weather services on Oct. 1, 2015. Weather services provided under the Flight Watch program En route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) will continue to be provided via charted frequencies pilots use to obtain weather information, open and close flight plans, and for updates on notams and temporary flight restrictions (TFRs). Pilots also may continue to use the universal frequency 122.2 MHz, the FAA said. NBAA site

Airport Signs, Markings And Procedures Your Guide To Avoiding Runway Incursions (2007)

Airport Markings And Signs – Aviation Facts

FAA Runway Status Lights Video

Heads Up, Hold Short, Fly Right! A Guide to Runway Safety (2009)

Ground School: Taxiway Markings and Airport Signage | Pre-solo

I do almost all of my flying in California, so the procedure might be different back east, but any time I am going to leave the traffic pattern, I get flight following.

At Class C airports they will give you a squawk and frequency when you call ground or clearance delivery. At every Class C I have flown out of, they will give you headings and altitude restrictions. Very shortly after takeoff they will switch you over to departure control. At some point they will tell you that altitude and heading are at pilot’s discretion. I always continue with Flight Following, but once leaving the Class C area, you can cancel if you want.

At almost every Class D, ground control will give you the flight following squawk and frequency. I usually ask for flight following after being given my taxi instructions. The call goes something like this, “Cherokee 7290J is a PA28/U requesting flight following to Salinas at 7,500” or if I am going to just do maneuvers or sight-seeing I’ll ask for ‘Local Flight Following’. Ground control will call up departure and in a few minutes come back to me with a squawk and frequency. The only airport that I fly out of that won’t give you flight following on the ground is Oxnard.

They generally hand you off to departure control when you are nearing the edge of their airspace but if they are busy, you should call departure when leaving the Class D.

Your first call to Departure Control should contain your call sign, current altitude, final altitude, and distance/direction from the airport. e.g. “Cherokee 7290J 3 miles south-east of San Luis Obispo, leaving 2,200 climbing 3,500”. They’ll usually ask you to ident and then call back with your location e.g. “Cherokee 90J radar contact 4 miles south-east of San Luis Obispo, altimeter 29.92”. I then respond with the altimeter setting, but after watching, Stevo1Kinevo on YouTube, I think the correct response is to say “Position checks”.

The meteorologists and designers at Weather Underground teamed up to bring you the science behind some of the most spectacular weather phenomena in a simple and artistic way.

Atmospheric rivers are a welcome event in Southern California. This is what the charts looked like on January 12, 2017 at the end of a week of heavy precipitation.

This article on the Earth Observatory site explains how they form and has an animation from satellite-based measurements from January 7 to January 10, 2017.

As you can see from the radar image on the morning of January 12, 2017, they are widespread and vary in intensity. When this snapshot was taken, there were no intense red areas, but they frequently occur in these storms.

Because warm south Pacific air is meeting up with a cold front,the freezing levels are fairly high for a winter storm, especially as contrasted with a storm that originates in the Gulf of Alaska.

Here’s the Skew-T Log-P diagram if you are into that kind of thing.

John Deakin has an interesting article on how air gets into the engine and why “Manifold Pressure” is really “Suction Pressure”. One takeaway from the article is that your MP gauge may not be calibrated accurately. To find out what it really says you need to make some photos and do some arithmetic.

This will show on the MP gauge as 29.92 inches at sea level on a standard day. I know, it’s hard to read it that accurately on the usual instruments, but you should see it very close to 29.9, and that’s “close enough.” If the sea-level airport has a big high-pressure area located over it with a local station pressure of 31.10, for example, then your gauge should show 31.1 inches of manifold pressure. If the airport is located at some higher elevation, the MP gauge will show an inch less for each thousand feet above sea level.

If you turn the knob until the altimeter reads 0 feet, the pressure in the Kollsman window will reflect the local pressure and will come close to your manifold pressure gauge.

In this case the manifold pressure gauge reads about 28.75″ when it should read 29.92″. It’s reads low by about 1.2″. So if I want to set the MP to the top of the green, I should set it to 26″ instead of 27.2.

I’m really liking the Wonderful World of Flying videos. This one starts with Emergency Glide Techniques with Barry Schiff.

In the video he talks about how you can’t extend the glide by varying from the best glide speed but that best glide speed does vary with weight.

I used his formula to adjust my weight and balance calculations for a Cessna T210L and his formula matches exactly with the speeds in the Owner’s Manual. You can use my on-line calculator to experiment.

You can also get the glide ratio from this graph. Just pick a point where the line is easy to read on both axes and then divide. In this case the line isn’t drawn precisely, but 20,000′ is 35 miles. So (35 miles * 5280 ft/mi) ÷ 20,000 feet = 9.25. And (25 miles * 5280 ft/mi) ÷ 14,000 feet = 9.4. So the glide ration is something like 9.3:1. I normally fly at around 5,500′ so I can glide around 9 miles.

Put another way, if you lose your engine in the pattern at 1,000′ AGL you can glide 9,000′ or just under 2 miles. For context, the runway at my field is 6,000′ so at pattern altitude I should be able to glide the length of the runway. The glide range will decrease if you turn.

Reading through the Instrument Flying Handbook (p 1-38) I ran across something that I had not seen before—Diverse Vector Area.

ATC may establish a minimum vectoring altitude (MVA) around certain airports. This altitude is based on terrain and obstruction clearance and provides controllers with minimum altitudes to vector aircraft in and around a particular location. However, it may be necessary to vector aircraft below this altitude to assist in the efficient flow of departing traffic. For this reason, an airport may have established a Diverse Vector Area (DVA). DVA design requirements are outlined in TERPS and allow for the vectoring of aircraft off the departure end of the runway below the MVA. The presence of a DVA is not published for pilots in any form, so the use of a textual ODP in a DVA environment could result in a misunderstanding between pilots and controllers. ATC instructions take precedence over an ODP. Most DVAs exist only at the busiest airports.

Even though the book states that The presence of a DVA is not published for pilots in any form… this is no longer true.

In ForeFlight they show up in the departure procedures section.

In the A/FD note that the vectors themselves are not included in the description, just the minimum climb rates.

Fred Simonds has an article that explains it well.

The videos from steveo1kinevo are strangely addicting. He does great job of mixing useful tips with his flights. The videos are great for learning how to communicate with ATC—from getting your clearance to taxiing to parking. Along the way he explains why he is doing the things he does. Even though he flies a turbo-prop TBM his instrumentation is similar to that in many smaller GA airplanes. I learn something new with every video. I’ve learned lots of simple things that aren’t in the books. For example, when flying at night, turn off your taxi light so you don’t blind the FBO marshaller.

I only have two niggles with his technique. First is that he only uses checklists in an emergency. It’s clear that he has a flow that he uses for startup and shutdown, but the only time he has used an actual checklist was when a warning light for the fuel transfer system lit up.

The second is something that many pilots do. When checking in with the next controller, you are supposed to give your tail number and an indication of your altitude. You are not supposed to say “With you…”. You are also supposed to avoid using the words for and to since they are similar to four and to.

Instead of saying “TBM 8152TB with you at one two thousand for one six thousand.” the preferred phrasing is “TBM 8152TB one two thousand climbing one six thousand.”.

Lots of pilots do it so ATC is used to it. And it doesn’t result in any confusion in his videos, but it is not the preferred way.

My Most Stressful flight of 2016

Single Pilot IFR

The videos from AOPAs Air Safety Institute contain great learning experiences—even though the outcome for the pilot and passengers is usually not that great.

The pilot in this case study had multiple chances to land safely but was fixated on dropping off his daughter and not getting stuck in an IFR airport. The ceilings were way to low for the pilot to even begin this flight and his actions at his destination showed a complete lack of understanding of how dire his situation was. ATC tried to help, but he rejected their overtures.

VFR Into IMC

It appears that this pilot didn’t understand the limitations of NEXTRAD weather. NEXRAD is a composite radar picture of precipitation. It takes between 6 and 8 minutes for the radar system to construct an image. Then a minute or two to update the display in the cockpit. The time stamp on the image is the time when the image was received. So a time of two minutes ago means that the image was received two minutes ago—not that this is where the storm was two minutes ago. For a fast moving or fast developing storm the difference is crucial. Unfortunately this pilot either didn’t understand the difference or didn’t think the storm was that bad with disastrous consequences.

Storm Related Turbulence

The videos from US Sport Aircraft are directed at beginning pilots. Their main intent seems to be to get you to buy a Czech made SportCruiser—which seems to be a wonderful LSA aircraft.

Top Ten Student Pilot Mistakes

Top 10 Pilot Checkride Mistakes

Mr Aviation 101 has lots of videos from the beginning of his flight training through gaining his instrument and commercial ratings. Lots of cross country trips in different aircraft as well.

Gary Wing has some great videos showing you how to do the maneuvers you need to learn for your private and commercial pilot license. This one on chandelles is good.

Chandelle Flight Maneuver

Normally the ratio of stupid jokes to content is too high form me to enjoy Rod Machado, but this video has enough content to make it worthwhile.

IFR Flying with Rod Machado

ABC’s Womderful World of Flying aired in 1988 but just about everything except the clothing and hairstyles is still relevant today. They review new aircraft, but since new airplane manufacturing basically stopped in the late 80s, the aircraft they are talking about are the same ones we are flying today. This particular episode covers emergency procedures when an elevator cable snaps, instrument scan, a trip to Flight Safety, and a review of some acrobatic airplanes. It’s a good video to watch to see if you want to watch the rest of the series.

ABC’s Wonderful World of Flying

I just read about QNH and QFE so I thought I’d throw this out there. We don’t use QFE in the US but I think my logic is correct.

From the FAA Instrument Procedures Handbook

Barometric Pressure for Local Altimeter Setting (QNH)

A local altimeter setting equivalent to the barometric pressure measured at an airport altimeter datum and corrected to sea level pressure. At the airport altimeter datum, an altimeter set to QNH indicates airport elevation above mean sea level (MSL). Altimeters are set to QNH while operating at and below the transition altitude and below the transition level.

For flights in the vicinity of airports, express the vertical position of aircraft in terms of QNH or QFE at or below the transition altitude and in terms of QNE at or above the transition level. While passing through the transition layer, express vertical position in terms of FLs when ascending and in terms of altitudes when descending.

When an aircraft that receives a clearance as number one to land completes its approach using QFE, express the vertical position of the aircraft in terms of height above the airport elevation during that portion of its flight for which you may use QFE.

Note that transition level is when you set the altimeter to a standard value—QNE. It varies by country. In the US it is 18,000′ and 29.92 inches. Not relevant to this discussion.

In the US we don’t use QFE, but you would probably get that from the ATIS at the field where you are landing. If no ATIS is available, to convert QNH to QFE you would move the altimeter so that you decrease your altitude by the field elevation. Here’s an example:

My field elevation is 212′. If I set the altimeter to QNH it will show 212′ as the altitude. To get QFE I need to change the altitude to 0′. In other words whatever altitude is showing on the altimeter, move the knob to make it show 212′ less.

Note that when you turn the altimeter knob the altitude goes in the same direction as the pressure setting in the Kollsman window. In the US we use inches of mercury not millibars but the movement is the same: As an example, right now the altimeter setting at KSBP is 30.08. The setting at KSBA (62 nm away) is 30.01. If you fly to KSBA you would notice a change in altitude of -70 feet when you get the new altimeter setting from approach control.

If you ever wanted to see the inside of an altimeter, Paul Tocknel did too and took pictures as one was taken apart.

According to Wikipedia The abbreviation QNH originates from the days when voice modulated radio was often difficult to receive, and communication was done by Morse Code. To avoid the need for long Morse transmissions, many of the most commonly used communications were incorporated into a Q code. To ask for atmospheric pressure at sea-level (i.e., at zero altitude) the letters ‘QNH’ would be transmitted. A common mnemonic for QNH is “Query: Nautical Height”, whereas the mnemonic often used for QFE is “Query: Field Elevation”.

I don’t think I have ever seen the term QNE used, but the concept of transition level is one that anyone flying above 18,000′ knows. The Jeppesen approach charts show the transition level in feet and as a flight level (FL) as well as indicating whether the altimeter reading is in inches or hectopascals (hPa) but don’t mention that it is QNE.

In the Pilots Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge they discuss the different types of airspace and briefly mention numbered Alert Areas. I don’t remember ever seeing one, so I looked on the charts to find one. I also stumbled across some other areas that the chart makers want pilots to be aware of. Some of these are used when a specific area is not demarcated e.g. caution and warning. While some have clearly demarcated areas and altitudes e.g. National Security Notice Areas.

Alert Areas
Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts with an “A” followed by a number (e.g., A-211) to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas. All activity within an alert area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots transiting the area, shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.

Alert Area A-292 is prominently labeled in magenta on the chart and alerts pilots to a high volume of traffic in the MOA. There is another area outside the MOA (labeled in blue) that pilots also need to be aware of.

From looking at the charts, it appears that alerts, warnings, and notices within MOAs are depicted in magenta—just like the MOAs. Restricted Areas are indicated on the charts in blue and alerts, warnings, and notices within Restricted Areas are depicted in blue. Outside of MOAs and Restricted Areas they are depicted in blue. Caution Areas can appear in magenta or blue.

In this area, there is a National Security Notice Area in magenta where pilots are requested to remain above 8000′ around the ordnance depot and an area where pilots are cautioned that there is a high volume of flight training. At the upper right, there are also symbols for ultralight and glider activity. These appear to be always labeled in magenta.

This chart shows a rather large area (the Hanford Nuclear Site) where pilots are requested to remain above 1800′ for Reasons of National Security.

Wildlife Areas are also marked on the charts in blue with a Notice to Pilots advising of the minimum requested altitude.

I’ve known for years that at non-towered airports you make calls on the Unicom frequency and often there is someone at the airport who will give wind and quiet-flight advisories. I never gave much thought to how the frequencies were assigned or when a station was a Unicom station or Multicom station. However, a recent Aviation StackExchange question piqued my interest.

The AIM covers this in 4−1−11. Designated UNICOM/MULTICOM Frequencies but it is a bit sparse and confusing. It looks like the AIM got its information from the FAA section of the CFRs Title 47: Telecommunication, PART 87—AVIATION SERVICES Subpart F—Aircraft Stations.

As near as I can tell, there is one official Unicom frequency per airport and it is assigned to the airport operator or other entity on an exclusive use basis. This is the frequency that is listed in the A/FD. Other operators (usually FBOs) may also have Unicom frequencies, but they are not listed in the A/FD. Apps like ForeFlight usually have these frequencies.

Brief keyed RF signals (keying the transmitter by momentarily depressing the microphone “push-to-talk” button) may be transmitted from aircraft for the control of automated unicoms on the unicom frequencies listed in paragraph (y)(3) of this section, or for the control of airport lights on the following Unicom frequencies are 122.700, 122.725, 122.800, 122.950, 122.975, 123.000, 123.050 and 123.075 MHz.

Multicom on the other hand is the default frequency for pilot communications for airports without a control tower and without a Unicom frequency. It is 122.850 or 122.900 MHz. The default Multicom frequency for airports with a control tower or FSS on the field is 122.950 MHz.

The A/FD often lists 122.950 as the Unicom frequency. So in practice these terms appear to be used interchangeably.

The FAA document, AC 90-42F – Traffic Advisory Practices at Airports without Operating Control Towers, while a bit outdated does confirm that the default frequency for airports without a control tower or Unicom station that the CTAF is 122.9.

You can find out who has a license for a base station on the FAA website. They have several different search sites that you can play around with.

Site/Market/Frequency
Search

Advanced Search
Search

Wireless Services
Search

The ASRI Ground Station Administration Service provides for the coordination, assignment, and licensing of VHF Aeronautical Enroute frequencies in the 128.825 to 132.000 MHz and 136.500 to 136.975 MHz spectrum to eligible aviation business customers IAW Part 87 of the FCC rules. It appears from looking at FBO frequencies in ForeFlight that many larger FBOs are using their services.

Just for fun I tried looking up base stations at my home airport. The airport had a registered base station for 122.95 but they let it expire. According to the A/FD 122.95 is the Unicom frequency. A flight school on the field had a base station on 122.85 but they closed and the license expired. The fuel service still has licenses for 122.85 and 122.95 but they only monitor the ASRI frequency now.

The ILS system may be divided functionally into three parts:
   (a) Guidance information: localizer, glide slope;
   (b) Range information: marker beacon, DME; and
   (c) Visual information: approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, runway lights

Guidance Information

Localizer transmitter operates on one of 40 ILS channels within the frequency range of 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. Located near the opposite end of the landing runway. It is adjusted for a course width of (full scale fly−left to a full scale fly−right) of 700 feet at the runway threshold.

Identification is in International Morse Code and consists of a three−letter identifier preceded by the letter I (• •) transmitted on the localizer frequency.

The localizer provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of 18 NM from the antenna between an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest terrain along the course line and 4,500 feet above the elevation of the antenna site.

Operational service volume:
   (a) To 10 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 18 NM from the antenna; and
   (b) From 10 to 35 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 10 NM.

Note that there are some exceptions to this. The LAX ILS or LOC Rwy 24 and 25 approaches start on the localizer about 40 miles from the threshold.

It is similar to a VOR signal except that it provides radial information for only a single course; the runway heading. The localizer course needle is four times as sensitive as a VOR needle. Heading adjustments must be much smaller because of the increased sensitivity of the indicator. When tracking VOR radial, each dot under represents 2° deviation from course.
For the localizer each dot under the needle represents 0.5° deviation from course.

In addition to being much closer to the source than with a VOR, pilots need to remember that the localizer course is very narrow—normally 5°. This results in high needle sensitivity. With this course width, a full-scale deflection shows when the aircraft is 2.5° to either side of the centerline. This sensitivity permits accurate orientation to the landing runway. With no more than one-quarter scale deflection maintained, the aircraft will be aligned with the runway.

Near the Outer Marker, a one-dot deviation puts you about 500 ft. from the centerline. Near the Middle Marker, one dot means you’re off course by 150 ft.

LDA is similar to a localizer but is not aligned with the runway. Straight−in minimums may be published where alignment does not exceed 30 degrees between the course and runway. Only circling minimums are published where this alignment exceeds 30 degrees.

There aren’t that many of them but you can find them by doing a search for “LDA RWY ”. Examples are HFD Rwy 2 in Hartford, Connecticut and LDA Y Rwy 19 at Reagan National. Note that the arrow on the localizer portion is shaded on the RHS indicating that it is the front course. There is no glide slope and, in the case of Reagan, the MDA is 3.4 miles from the airport and the chart indicates that the offset in degrees from the runway is 37.50°.

KMTN LDA RWY 33 on the other hand does have a glide slope (as indicated by the lightning bolt on the vertical profile section of the chart. The legend LDA/GLIDE SLOPE is on the chart is also a big hint. This appears to be a case where everything is the same as an ILS, except that because the runway is lined up with the bay, the didn’t put in approach lighting so it doesn’t qualify as an ILS. This approach has a letter after the approach type, which indicates that the approach is not straight in.

KROA LDA Y RWY 6 has a glide slope, and has different minimums if you are using the glide slope or the localizer. The final approach course is 72° for runway 6 so you can see why it is an LDA not an ILS.

An SDF is also similar to a localizer but the course width is wider, either 6° or 12°. There are very few left. KMOR SDF RWY5 is still active and the KMFI SDF RWY 34 still shows up on the chart, but the SDF is out of service and it must be flown using GPS (2018-10-29). Note that the arrow on the localizer portion is not shaded as it is on an ILS or backcourse and the identifier box says SDF instead of Localizer. They do not have a glide slope.

Glide Slope/Glide Path frequency is paired with the localizer. The glideslope transmitter is located between 750 feet and 1,250 feet from the approach end of the runway and offset 250 to 650 feet from the runway centerline. It transmits a glide path beam 1.4 degrees wide. The glide path may not be suitable for navigation below the lowest authorized DH.

The GS projection angle is normally adjusted to 2.5° to 3.5° above horizontal, so it intersects the MM at about 200 feet and the OM at about 1,400 feet above the runway elevation. The glide slope is normally usable to the distance of 10 NM. At 10 NM from the point of touchdown, this represents a vertical distance of approximately 1,500 feet, narrowing to a few feet at touchdown.

At the Outer Marker, each dot of glide slope deviation equals about a 50-foot excursion from the prescribed glidepath. Less as you get closer to the runway.

Range Information

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) in lieu of the OM or as a back course (BC) final approach fix (FAF).

Marker Beacons
The Outer Marker (OM) normally indicates a position at which an aircraft at the appropriate altitude on the localizer course will intercept the ILS glide path. Blue light—three dashes.

The MM indicates a position approximately 3,500 feet from the landing threshold at an altitude of approximately 200 feet above the TDZE. Amber light—dash dot dash dot.

IM will indicate a point at which an aircraft is at a designated decision height (DH) on the glide path between the MM and landing threshold. White light—four dots.

A back course marker normally indicates the ILS back course final approach fix where approach descent is commenced. White light—dot dot space dot dot.

GPS may be used in lieu of compass locator, outer and inner markers, and/or DME. Requires current database or verification that the procedure has not been amended since the expiration of the database.

Range information is also provided by radials from off-course VORs.

You may use certified GPS to:

Determine aircraft position relative to or distance from a VOR, TACAN, NDB, compass locator, DME fix; or a named fix defined by a VOR radial, TACAN course, NDB bearing, or compass locator bearing intersecting a VOR or Localizer (LOC) course. AC 90-108

Visual Information—Category I

§91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.
(a) Instrument approaches to civil airports. Unless otherwise authorized by the FAA, when it is necessary to use an instrument approach to a civil airport, each person operating an aircraft must use a standard instrument approach procedure prescribed in part 97 of this chapter for that airport…

(1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 121 or part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;

(2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used; and [Note: This applies to all aircraft—not just those operating under Part 121 or 135.]

(c) Operation below DA/ DH or MDA. Except as provided in paragraph (l) of this section, where a DA/DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless—

(3) Except for a Category II or Category III approach… at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:

   (i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.

   (ii) The threshold.

   (iii) The threshold markings.

   (iv) The threshold lights.

   (v) The runway end identifier lights.

   (vi) The visual approach slope indicator.

   (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.

   (viii) The touchdown zone lights.

   (ix) The runway or runway markings.

   (x) The runway lights.

As a guide to remembering the items, this list (in the order they appear), helps.

approach light system allows you to descend to 100′ above TDZE
runway end identifier lights (REIL, the flashing strobes on either side of the threshold)
the threshold (itself, the markings, or lights)
visual glideslopes (VASI, PAPI, etc.)
the touchdown zone (itself, the markings, or lights)
the runway (itself, the markings, or lights)

The MALSR (Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System With Runway Alignment Indicator Lights) is a medium approach intensity lighting system (ALS) installed in airport runway approach zones along the extended centerline of the runway. The MALSR, consisting of a combination of threshold lamps, steady burning light bars and flashers, provides visual information to pilots on runway alignment, height perception, roll guidance, and horizontal references for Category I Precision Approaches. There are approximately 900 MALSR in the National Airspace System (NAS).

The ALSF-2 provides visual information on runway alignment, height perception, roll guidance, and horizontal references for Category II/III instrument approaches. There are 153 commissioned facilities in the NAS.

The approach plate shows the type of approach lighting that is available and gives a graphical representation in the Pilot Briefing section of the plate as well as the location of the lighting in the Airport Diagram section.

The Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) system provides rapid and positive identification of the end of the runway. The system consists of two synchronized, unidirectional flashing lights. The lights are positioned on each corner of the runway landing threshold, facing the approach area and aimed at an angle of 10 to 15 degrees. There are currently approximately 800 REIL systems deployed in the NAS. (It appears that they are found on runways with non-precision approaches and on the other end of an ILS approach runway.)

Runway Alignment Indicator Lights (RAIL) are high-intensity sequenced flashing lights which are installed in combination with other light systems. Also known as the rabbit.

Landing Minimums

§91.175 (d) Landing. No pilot operating an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, may land that aircraft when… the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.

ATC provides the pilot with the current visibility reports appropriate to the runway in use. This may be in the form of prevailing visibility, runway visual value (RVV), or runway visual range (RVR). However, only the pilot can determine if the flight visibility meets the landing requirements indicated on the approach chart. If the flight visibility meets the minimum prescribed for the approach, then the approach may be continued to a landing. If the flight visibility is less than that prescribed for the approach, then the pilot must execute a missed approach regardless of the reported visibility. Instrument Flying Handbook

The landing minimums published on IAP charts are based on full operation of all components and visual aids associated with the instrument approach chart being used. Higher minimums are required with inoperative components or visual aids. Instrument Flying Handbook

Operating Below DA/DH or MDA

§91.175 (c) Operation below DA/DH or MDA. …No pilot may operate an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless—

(1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 121 or part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;

(2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used.

The lowest authorized ILS minimums, with all required ground and airborne systems components operative, are:
(a) Category I. Decision Height (DH) 200 feet and Runway Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet (with touchdown zone and centerline lighting, RVR 1,800 feet), or (with Autopilot or FD or HUD, RVR 1,800 feet)

When the localizer fails, an ILS approach is not authorized. When the glide slope fails, the ILS reverts to a non−precision localizer approach.

Simplified Directional Facility (SDF)
An SDF is similar to a localizer except that the the SDF antenna may be offset from the runway centerline. Because of this, the angle of convergence between the final approach course and the runway bearing should be determined by reference to the instrument approach procedure chart. This angle is generally not more than 3 degrees. SDF signal is fixed at either 6 degrees or 12 degrees as necessary to provide maximum flyability and optimum course quality. There aren’t that many of them but you can find them by doing a search for “SDF RWY ”. Examples are the KMOR SDF Rwy 5 at Morristown, Tennessee and SDF Rwy 34 at Marshfield, Wisconsin. These are both straight-in approaches. The symbol on the chart is not shaded on one side like the symbols for the ILS/LOC and LDA because no glide slope is provided.

§91.175 Takeoff and landing under IFR.
(k) ILS components. The basic components of an ILS are the localizer, glide slope, and outer marker, and, when installed for use with Category II or Category III instrument approach procedures, an inner marker. The following means may be used to substitute for the outer marker: Compass locator; precision approach radar (PAR) or airport surveillance radar (ASR); DME, VOR, or nondirectional beacon fixes authorized in the standard instrument approach procedure; or a suitable RNAV system in conjunction with a fix identified in the standard instrument approach procedure. Applicability of, and substitution for, the inner marker for a Category II or III approach is determined by the appropriate 14 CFR part 97 approach procedure, letter of authorization, or operations specifications issued to an operator.

Cody Johnson explains how to use the 100′ rule and when one pilot descended below 100′ when there were obstructions in the way and he mis-interpreted what the approach allowed him to do.

Oddly enough, there does not appear to be a rule saying that you have to follow the glideslope down to the runway if you are a small airplane. But it makes sense that you should.

Class C and B incorporate Section 91.129(e)(3) by reference, so the rule applies in that airspace as well. It doesn’t specifically apply to operations at airports in Class E airspace, but they don’t typically (ever?) have ILS approaches.

Nondirectional Radio Beacon (NDB)

Except for Alaska, there are very few of these left and most pilots remove the Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) equipment from their airplanes when the install GPS equipment (Unless they like to listen to AM Radio when they fly.) The frequency band in the US is 190 to 535 kilohertz (kHz) and they transmit a three-letter Morse code identification. Receivers will pick up the USA Standard AM Broadcast Band of 530-1700 kHz. NDBs are still sold for off-shore oil platforms, though I wonder how many are in use given the ubiquity of GPS in helicopters and boats.

VHF Omni−directional Range (VOR)

VORs operate within the 108.0 to 117.95 MHz frequency band. They are often paired with the military TACAN navigation system. When they are co-located they are called VORTACs. There are three types of VOR—High, Low, and Terminal.

VOR facilities operate within the 108.0 to 117.95 MHz frequency band and assignment between 108.0 and 112.0 MHz is in even-tenth increments to preclude any conflict with ILS localizer frequency assignment, which uses the odd tenths in this range. (Instrument Flying Handbook)

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

The TACAN and civilian DME equipment use the same frequency, so the DME receiver can receive DME distance from a VORTAC, VOR/DME, or DME located with an ILS or localizer. Distance information received from DME equipment is SLANT RANGE distance and not actual horizontal distance.

Slant range error is negligible if the aircraft is one mile or more from the ground facility for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the elevation of the facility.(Instrument Flying Handbook)

As with ADF equipment, many aircraft owners do not install DME equipment if they have an IFR-capable GPS. According to Advisory Circular: 90-108 Change 1

Operators may use a suitable RNAV system (see below) in the following ways.
(1) Determine aircraft position relative to or distance from a VOR…, TACAN, NDB, compass locator…, DME fix; or a named fix defined by a VOR radial, TACAN course, NDB bearing, or compass locator bearing intersecting a VOR or Localizer (LOC) course.
(2) Navigate to or from a VOR, TACAN, NDB, or compass locator.
(3) Hold over a VOR, TACAN, NDB, compass locator, or DME fix.
(4) Fly an arc based upon DME.

NOT ALLOWED BY THIS AC – Lateral guidance on the final approach segment.

Substitution for the NAVAID (for example, a VOR or NDB) providing lateral guidance for the final approach segment.
Lateral navigation on LOC-based courses (including LOC back-course guidance) without reference to raw LOC data.

Max Trescott clarified and expanded on this. …as soon as you turn onto a localizer or ILS, you need to display course guidance from the Nav radio… for a VOR approach, the answer is different.… you can fly all the way to the FAF before you need to switch the CDI or HSI to the Nav radio. To remember to set your equipment correctly, use the mantra, Morse, Source, Course.

TYPES OF RNAV SYSTEMS THAT QUALIFY AS A SUITABLE RNAV SYSTEM.

Systems Using TSO-C129/-C145/-C146 Equipment. An RNAV system with TSO-C129/-C145/-C146 (all revisions), equipment, installed in accordance with AC 20-138 (all revisions), Airworthiness Approval of Positioning and Navigation Systems, or AC 20-130A, Airworthiness Approval of Navigation or Flight Management Systems Integrating Multiple Navigation Sensors, and authorized for IFR en route and terminal operations (including those systems previously qualified for “GPS in lieu of ADF or DME” operations)

To clarify what this means, if you have a WAAS or non-WAAS (GPS) RNAV system that has been cerified for use in IFR, then you have a system that meets the requirements of AC 90-108.

Identification on Charts

Service Volumes

Not sure if the new tests require that you know the service volumes of VORs, but just in case, here are the graphs. FYI, the service volumes only apply to off-airway flying because:

1−1−8 b. Standard Service Volume limitations do not apply to published IFR routes or procedures.

Oddly enough, you can’t identify the type of VOR from VFR charts. However it appears that they are identifiable on IFR charts. Terminal VORs have a (T) next to the name on low altitude IFR charts. High altitude charts will have (L) next to the VOR abbreviation for low altitude VORs.

You can also find the type of VOR from the A/FD. Search for the A/FD using the search term “A/FD” or “Digital – Chart Supplement (d-CS)”. It is a rather large zip file that you need to download to use. Then you need to find the file that has the VOR you are interested in. If you have a subscription to something like ForeFlight, it is usually easier to download it in the documents section of the app.

For example, the Morro Bay VOR is a low altitude VOR found in SW_161_10NOV2016.pdf and looks like this:

You can see that it is Low (L) VOR and because of mountains, it is unusable below certain altitudes beyond specified distances because of mountain obstructions.

Guadalupe is a terminal VOR and Avenal is a high altitude VOR.

Many VORs and localizers have limitations and the limitations are also included in the A/FD for nearby airports in the RADIO AIDS TO NAVIGATION section if they are used in instrument approaches.

The Aeronautical Information Manual put out by the FAA has lots of interesting stuff, however, it’s not an especially engrossing read. And there is a lot of information that you already know, that doesn’t apply to general aviation pilots, or that is poorly written and needs further explanation. This post is the first of many that quote from the AIM, summarize it, and add personal experience or the experiences from others to highlight the information.

So let’s start off with a quote from the AIM about its purpose:

This manual is designed to provide the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures for use in the National Airspace System (NAS) of the United States. An international version called the Aeronautical Information Publication contains parallel information, as well as specific information on the international airports for use by the international community.

This manual contains the fundamentals required in order to fly in the United States NAS. It also contains items of interest to pilots concerning health and medical facts, factors affecting flight safety, a pilot/controller glossary of terms used in the ATC System, and information on safety, accident, and hazard reporting.

And this is an important point about the AIM.

This publication, while not regulatory, provides information which reflects examples of operating techniques and procedures which may be requirements in other federal publications or regulations. It is made available solely to assist pilots in executing their responsibilities required by other publications.

So the AIM itself is not regulatory but it does explain regulations. When it does explain regulations from the Code of Federal Regulations Title 14 (CFRs are also referred to as the Federal Aviation Regulations—FARs) I will often quote the underlying regulation and give you enough information to find it (e.g. §91.3 Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.) but not give a link to it.

The FAA (and the Federal Government as a whole) frequently changes the location of the documents on its website. Therefore I won’t be providing links, since they don’t last, but instead will provide the title of the document or the section of the AIM that is relevant. FAA Documents, Orders,and Advisory Circulars are frequently revised and standard practice is to append a letter to the end of the document title to indicate the revision. e.g. Instrument Flying Handbook FAA-H-8083-15B. I’ll include the letter so you know which version I am quoting but, when searching, you should omit it so that you get the most recent version. At the moment, you can find most publications by starting at this page, but that link may change.

I operate out of Class D airspace and I noticed that whenever I get flight following, I am almost always handed off to Departure Control. When I don”t get flight following, they rarely tell me “Frequency change approved.”. This explains why.

4−3−2. Airports with an Operating Control Tower

a. When operating at an airport where traffic
control is being exercised by a control tower, pilots
are required to maintain two−way radio contact with
the tower while operating within the Class B, Class C,
and Class D surface area unless the tower authorizes
otherwise. Initial callup should be made about
15 miles from the airport. Unless there is a good
reason to leave the tower frequency before exiting the
Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas, it is a
good operating practice to remain on the tower
frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic
information. In the interest of reducing tower
frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is
not necessary to request permission to leave the tower
frequency once outside of Class B, Class C, and
Class D surface areas.

A while ago I started using C-FARTS for transitioning from cruise to descent to landing. And there are lots of other phases of flight where I can apply the same acronym to my checklist. Here are my current thoughts.

Before Heading to Airport

W – Weight and Balance Is it an issue?
T – TFRs checked
F – Flight Plan filed?

After Pre-Flight

I use the Braille method of pre-flighting i.e. I walk around the plane and touch everything. After everything is loaded and all the passengers are in the plane (or all but the right-hand passenger for planes with one door) I step back from the plane and make sure the baggage door is closed, no one left a drink on the wing, towbar is stowed, and basically one take more opportunity to make sure everything looks right.

P – Prop Did I check for nicks and leaks?
C – Clean Windows?

C – Cowl Is it closed and did I check oil and Oil Filler cap?
F – Fuel Especially after refueling, did I check for water and levels?
A – Air Are all of the pitot-static ports clear? Pitot Heat for IFR?
R – Remove tiedowns, chocks, and towbar?
T – Tires and brakes look OK?
S – Safety Stall warning, the beacon, and lights all work?

Flight Setup

A – Get ATIS

C – Call for clearance (IFR or Class C)
F – Flight Plan in GPS systems
A – Adjust seat
R – Runway in use
T – Taxi Diagram Open
S – Setup Radios

Pre-Start 1

C – Controls
F – Fuel Selector
A – Altimeter
R – Rotating Beacon
T – Trim
S – Seat Belts and Doors

Pre-Start 2

C – Cowl Flaps Open
F – Fuses and Circuit Breakers
A – Air (Open Vents)
R – Radios Off
T – Time
S – Safety Briefing

Start

The starting procedure varies with different planes. I don’t have a good acronym for this yet.
B – Brakes
M – Mixture
T – Throttle
M – Master
B – Boost Pump On
P – Prime
C – Clear
S – Start

After Start

O – Oil Pressure (30 Seconds or shutdown)
B – Boost Pump Off
L – Lean Aggressively

F – Fuel Levels
A – Amps (or Generator)
R – Radios On – Pull up Flight Plan
T – Transponder On Alt
S – Safety – Lights (Strobes and Landing)

Pre-Taxi

A – ATIS
B – Brakes
C – Call for Taxi
D – Destination

Taxi

A – Airspeed
B – Ball
C – Compass
D – DG, TC as expected

Runup

M – Mags
P – Prop
C – Carb Heat
V – Vacuum
T – Temps
P – Pressures
M – Mixture – hand stays on

Post-Runup

M – Mixture
C – Controls

F – Fuel Selector
A – Altimeter same as runup elev
R – Radios
T – Traffic
S – Seat Belts, Doors, and Windows

Heading to Runway

M – Mixture full rich
C – Call for clearance or announce

F – Flaps for takeoff
A – Air (Close Windows)
R – Verify Runway
T – Time (for IFR expect further clearance)
S – Scan for traffic

Runway

H – Heading
A – Ailerons for wind
A – Airspeed alive
P – Power (MP or RPM where it belongs)
P – Pitch Attitude
Y – V_Y or slightly less

Pattern Altitude

P – Power
P – Prop
P – Pitch for cruise
P – Boost Pump Off

On Course

T – Trim
A – Autopilot
T – Temps
S – Scan gauges

Cruise

C – Cowl
F – Fuel Flow
A – Airspeed
R – Report?
T – Trim
T – Temps
S – Scan

Pre-Landing

C – Compass and DG Match, Set to Runway Heading
F – Fuel
A – ATIS
R – Runway
T – TPA
S – Safety (Belts & Gear Stowed)

IFR Approach

B – Brief Approach
R – Radios and Nav Set
A – Add to GPS
A – Altitude Bug DA/DH and First
G – Go Missed Procedure
S – Speed Change?

Entering Pattern

B – Boost Pump
R – Report
A – Altitude
A – Airspeed
G – Gear
S – Scan and Listen

Numbers (or 4 mile Final)

G – Gear Down
F – 1st Notch of Flaps

Base and Final

R – Report
A – Altitude
A – Airspeed
G – Gear
S – Scan and Listen

Short Final

R – Runway number correct
A – Altitude
A – Airspeed
G – Gear Green
S – Scan and Listen

Off Runway

B – Boost Pump Off
C – Cowl Flaps Open

F – Flaps
L – Lean Mixture
A – Air, Open Windows
G – Contact Ground
S – Squawk VFR

Shutdown

Runup, Radios, Mixture, Master, Mags

According to the Pilot Controller Glossary:

WILCO− I have received your message, understand it, and will comply with it.

ROGER− I have received all of your last transmission. It should not be used to answer a question requiring a yes or a no answer.

If you are a general aviation pilot, ATC wants to be sure that you have understood the instruction that you have been given and will expeditiously comply with it. If you are given a heading for traffic, altitude, clearance to land, hold short instruction, or clearance into Class B airspace, you should always repeat it back. I would not mix and match Roger and Wilco in readbacks.

Some examples:

At my home airport when given a taxi instruction:

Tower: 90J Taxi to parking via Echo, Juliet, Mike. Remain this frequency.

I could reply Wilco, and my abbreviated callsign. e.g.

Wilco, 90J

Never use Wilco if you are given a specific runway or hold-short instruction. (AIM 4−3−18. Taxiing)

9. When taxi instructions are received from the controller, pilots should always read back:
  (a) The runway assignment.
  (b) Any clearance to enter a specific runway.
  (c) Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or line up and wait.

At an unfamiliar airport, unless the taxi instructions were very simple, I’d read them back.

When ATC can immediately see that I have complied with the instruction and it is fairly lengthy, I could use Wilco.

Tower: 90J Make a 360 to the right for spacing, watch for birds on final, follow the Cessna on left base.

Tower: 90J Extend your downwind. I’ll call your base.

On the other hand, if it involves a safety of flight issue, I’ll read back what I am going to do.

Tower: 90J Follow the Cessna entering left base.

90J: Looking for the Cessna 90J.

AIM 4−4−7. Pilot Responsibility upon Clearance Issuance
b. ATC Clearance/Instruction Readback.
Pilots of airborne aircraft should read back those parts of ATC clearances and instructions containing altitude assignments, vectors, or runway assignments as a means of mutual verification. The read back of the “numbers” serves as a double check between pilots and controllers and reduces the kinds of communications errors that occur when a number is either “misheard” or is incorrect.

I don’t know that I have ever used Roger. It is usually simpler to just repeat the information or respond with what you are going to do.

ATC: 90J traffic 12 o’clock 7 miles north bound 3,500′

I could respond with Roger, but I want them to know that I ether have the traffic in sight or that I am looking for it. So I would respond with either “Traffic in sight” or “Looking”.

ATC: 90J Santa Barbara altimeter 29.92

I suppose you could respond with Roger, but repeating the setting is the preferred response.

I have heard the tower and flight following use Roger—although it’s often “Roger that”.

I am in the practice area and then let ATC know that I am going to fly somewhere else.

When I’m starting my VFR descent to the airport.

Reporting birds near the airport.

If you listen to Live ATC, you will hear airline pilots use Wilco in busy airspace, but in my experience as a general aviation pilot, it is quite rare.

It is surprisingly difficult to find documentation on the FAA and NOAA websites that explicitly state wind direction as either true or magnetic. Everyone knows that the wind direction in local reports, ATIS and automated weather are reported with reference to magnetic north. “Long-lines” reports, METARs, TAFs, Winds Aloft, etc. are given with reference to true north. It is probably less commonly known that wind direction for PIREPs is magnetic.

True versus magnetic makes a lot of sense when you think about it. When you’re landing, you want to know the wind direction relative to the runway—which is magnetic. When planning flights, you don’t necessarily know the magnetic deviation of each location where you are getting wind reports, so getting the report relative to true north works best.

When ATC (tower or enroute) gives you wind direction it will be magnetic. From Order JO 7110.65T

l. “Course,” “bearing,” “azimuth,” “heading,” and “wind direction” information shall always be magnetic unless specifically stated otherwise.

The instructions for creating the ATIS include this note:

ASOS/AWOS is to be considered the primary source of wind direction, velocity, and altimeter data for weather observation purposes at those locations that are so equipped. The ASOS Operator Interface Device (OID) displays the magnetic wind as “MAG WND” in the auxiliary data location in the lower left-hand portion of the screen. Other OID displayed winds are true and are not to be used for operational purposes.

Wind direction for the ATIS is found in the Aeronatical Information Manual (AIM)

AIM 4−1−13. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)

ATIS information includes the time of the latest weather sequence, ceiling, visibility, obstructions to visibility, temperature, dew point (if available), wind direction (magnetic), and velocity, altimeter, other pertinent remarks, instrument approach and runway in use.

Also from the AIM,

AIM 4-3-6. Use of Runways/Declared Distances

a. Runways are identified by numbers which indicate the nearest 10-degree increment of the azimuth of the runway centerline. For example, where the magnetic azimuth is 183 degrees, the runway designation would be 18; for a magnetic azimuth of 87 degrees, the runway designation would be 9. For a magnetic azimuth ending in the number 5, such as 185, the runway designation could be either 18 or 19. Wind direction issued by the tower is also magnetic and wind velocity is in knots.

Both controllers and pilots should use magnetic directions in their communications unless the explicitly state that they are using true.

Just in case you aren’t familiar with the term azimuth, it is usually denoted alpha, α, and defined as a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line.

Section 2. Radio Communications Phraseology and Techniques
4-2-10. Directions

The three digits of bearing, course, heading, or wind direction should always be magnetic. The word “true” must be added when it applies.

Wind direction for PIREPS is found in Order JO 7110.10U

i. /WV. Wind direction and speed. Encode using three digits to indicate wind direction (magnetic) and two or three digits to indicate reported wind speed. When the reported speed is less than 10 Kts use a leading zero. The wind group will always have “KT” appended.

Computing Magnetic Wind Direction from ASOS and AWOS.

The National Weather Service (NWS) has received several inquiries concerning the computation of magnetic wind reports from the Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS). ASOS encodes wind reports with respect to true north in all METAR and SPECI reports, the 5-minute observations, and for use in the daily weather summary. Magnetic winds are broadcast from the Ground-To-Air (GTA) radio, appended to the 5-minute observations, and available on several video displays.

ASOS computes the true 2-minute average wind, adds or subtracts the magnetic declination for the site, and then rounds the wind direction to the nearest 10 degrees. If the site has an east magnetic declination it is subtracted from the true direction and a west declination is added to the true direction. A way to remember this rule is: East is least (subtracted declination) and west is best (added declination).

In Figure 1 the magnetic declination is 10 degrees to the east. If the wind is measured having a direction of 360 degrees true, the magnetic wind would have a magnetic direction of 350 degrees, i.e., 360-10 = 350. In other words, if you were using magnetic north as your frame of reference, the wind would be blowing from a direction 10 degrees west of magnetic north, i.e., 350 degrees magnetic. Likewise, a wind with a true direction of 090 degrees would have a magnetic direction of 080 degrees magnetic.

Figure 2 shows the case where the declination is 15 degrees to the west. If the wind has a direction of 360 degrees true and if your frame of reference is magnetic north, then the wind is really blowing from the direction of 015 degrees magnetic. Keep in mind that at this site true north is 015 degrees magnetic.

The last case is a site with a magnetic declination of zero degrees. In this case true north and magnetic north are the same and no corrections are necessary.

Other Wind Information

AIM 7-1-4. Preflight Briefing
7. Winds Aloft. Forecast winds aloft will be provided using degrees of the compass. The briefer will interpolate wind directions and speeds between levels and stations as necessary to provide expected conditions at planned altitudes. (Heights are MSL.) Temperature information will be provided on request.

NOAA has A Pilot’s Guide to Aviation Weather Services which includes this section:

WIND and TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORECASTS (FD) are 6, 12, and 24-hour forecasts of wind direction, speed, and temperatures for selected altitudes to 53,000 feet MSL at specified locations. Direction is relative to true north rounded to the nearest 10 degrees. Speed is in knots. Temperatures aloft (in degrees Celsius) are included with wind data for all but the 3000-foot MSL level and those levels within 2500 feet of the ground. Temperatures above 24,000 feet MSL are always negative. Winds at other locations and altitudes can be obtained by interpolation.

And their Glossary includes this:

Wind Direction
The true direction from which the wind is blowing at a given location (i.e., wind blowing from the north to the south is a north wind). It is normally measured in tens of degrees from 10 degrees clockwise through 360 degrees. North is 360 degrees. A wind direction of 0 degrees is only used when wind is calm.

NOAA also puts out the ASOS: Automated Surface Observing System GUIDE FOR PILOTS through the National Weather Service.

WIND DIRECTION AND SPEED: Direction in tens of degrees from true north (first three digits);

Their guide to METARs and TAFs gives an example of decoding a METAR and states

Wind: 3 digit true-north direction, nearest 10 degrees (or VaRiaBle); next 2-3 digits for speed and unit, KT

A good way to remember whether the winds are magnetic or true is that if you hear it or say it, they are magnetic. If you read it, they are true. The only exception is if you are talking to flight service. In that case they are reading the information to you and not translating to magnetic when they do so.

I’ve covered this in other posts, but just for my own use, I thought it would be nice to put together a list of things I need before starting the annual.

Parts

032 gauge safety wire for Oil Filter
Oil Filter
Air Filter
Spark Plug Gaskets
Cotter Pins for Main Wheels
Battery for ELT if necessary
AAA Batteries for Headset and Flashlights

Consumables

1 small container of blue-label GoJo for cleaning the belly and hands
2 old wash cloths for applying GoJo
2 toothbrushes for getting GoJo in the cracks
3 rolls of Bounty paper towels
1 handful disposable gloves
1 yogurt cup for soaking spark plugs
1 handful rubber bands for keeping seat belts out of the way
2 garbage bags
1 plastic grocery bag or freezer bag for removing oil filter

Tools

Make sure no one has borrowed these.
Compressor
Shop Lights
Jacks
Borescope
Ladder for checking the tail

Things from Home

Battery Powered Screwdriver
Tri-Flow
Handheld Radio for Checking ELT
Camera/iPad for remembering how things go back together

Miscellaneous

$20 Gift Card at Hardware Store